Deck 4: Prenatal Development

Question 1

Babies born to mothers pregnant during the 1998 ice storm, that plunged much of Quebec and Eastern Ontario into cold and darkness, had babies who tended to speak less at two years of age. This is most likely because

A) mothers provided less in utero linguistic input than they normally would.
B) baby's day/night cycles were disrupted at a critical time in fetal development.
C) the drop in temperature occurred at a critical time in fetal development.
D) high levels of maternal stress hormones directly affected fetal development.

Answer 1

high levels of maternal stress hormones directly affected fetal development.

Question 2

The ovum

A) contains a fully formed baby.
B) is influenced only by nature, not nurture.
C) is the largest cell in the body.
D) is smaller than a sperm cell.

Answer 2

is the largest cell in the body.

Question 3

The periods of prenatal development occur in which order?

A) embryo, fetus, zygote
B) zygote, embryo, fetus
C) zygote, fetus, embryo
D) embryo, zygote, fetus

Answer 3

zygote, embryo, fetus

Question 4

The single cell that forms from the union of a sperm and an ovum is known as a

A) placenta.
B) zygote.
C) embryo.
D) fetus.

Question 5

Within the new zygote an hour after conception __________ from the mother are merged with the same number from the father, resulting in a new life form with __________ chromosome pairs.

A) 23 chromosomes; 23
B) 23 chromosomes; 46
C) 23 chromosome pairs; 46
D) 46 chromosome pairs; 92

Question 6

On average, a woman releases an egg once every

A) 7 days.
B) 14 days.
C) 28 days.
D) 35 days.

Question 7

Implantation takes about

A) 24 hours.
B) 3 days.
C) 1 week.
D) 2 weeks.

Question 8

Emily has been trying to conceive for months. She ovulates around May 15^th. If she conceives during this month, when should implantation occur

A) May 17^th
B) May 19^th
C) May 22^nd
D) May 25^th

Question 9

The period of the zygote lasts about

A) 3 days.
B) 1 week.
C) 2 weeks.
D) 5 weeks.

Question 10

The period of the embryo begins

A) within 24 hours of conception.
B) when implantation begins.
C) when implantation is complete.
D) at the beginning of the third month of gestation.

Question 11

The period of the embryo lasts approximately __________ weeks.

A) two
B) four
C) six
D) eight

Question 12

During the period of the __________, the baby is most vulnerable to threats from its environment.

A) zygote
B) embryo
C) fetus
D) All the alternatives are correct.

Question 13

Louisa and her husband have conceived this month. Which of the following statements is correct?

A) Louisa's infant-to-be will be considered an embryo until approximately the 8^th week
B) Louisa's infant-to-be will be considered a fetus until approximately the 8^th week
C) Louisa's infant-to-be will be considered a fetus and an embryo until the 16^th week
D) None of the above alternatives is correct

Question 14

Which of the following developments occur during the period of the embryo?

A) All brain cells are formed.
B) All ova that a female will ever produce are established.
C) The skeleton is established.
D) All major internal and external structures form.

Question 15

Michelle, who will be giving birth soon, is explaining to her three-year-old son how the baby gets fed while in utero. Which of the following statements is accurate about how the fetus gets nourished?

A) The amniotic sac is filled with fluid that nourishes the baby throughout the pregnancy
B) The placenta is filled with vitamins that the fetus takes as it needs some
C) The umbilical cord, which is attached to the placenta, allows for nourishment
D) The mesodermal layer transmits the mother's vitamin intake to the fetus

Question 16

All major internal and external structures form during the

A) period of the embryo.
B) period of the fetus.
C) period of the zygote.
D) last 6 months of gestation.

Question 17

The endodermal layer eventually forms

A) the nervous system.
B) muscles, cartilage, and bones.
C) the heart.
D) most internal organs and glands.

Question 18

The ectodermal cells develop into

A) the heart.
B) the lungs.
C) skin and hair.
D) All the alternatives are correct

Question 19

The mesodermal layer eventually gives rise to the

A) heart and sex organs.
B) sensory parts of the eye, nose, and ear.
C) brain.
D) skin.

Question 20

By the end of the third week, the __________ is formed; it is the first organ to become functional during prenatal development.

A) liver
B) lungs
C) kidney
D) heart

Question 21

Which of the following is correct?

A) The inner cell mass differentiates into three germ layers.
B) In the 8 weeks between conception and the end of the embryonic period, the zygote changes from a fertilized egg to a remarkably complex organism consisting of millions of differentiated cells.
C) The mass of cells surrounding the zygote develop by the end of the embryonic period into the amniotic sac, placenta, and umbilical cord.
D) All of the alternatives are accurate.

Question 22

By the end of the eighth week following conception, the embryo looks like a

A) round mass of cells.
B) tiny tube.
C) curved form with an evident heart and buds for limbs.
D) human being.

Question 23

The prenatal support system-the amniotic sac, placenta, and umbilical cord-are fully formed by the

A) end of the period of the zygote.
B) end of the first month of prenatal development.
C) end of the period of the embryo.
D) beginning of the third trimester.

Question 24

The embryo grows within the __________, a watertight membrane filled with fluid.

A) amniotic sac
B) placenta
C) abdomen
D) mesodermal layer

Question 25

One function of the amniotic sac is to provide the developing fetus with

A) a constant temperature.
B) oxygen.
C) adequate nutrition.
D) fluids.

Question 26

The exchange of materials between the fetus and the mother takes place in the

A) amniotic fluid.
B) umbilical cord.
C) uterine wall.
D) placenta.

Question 27

The placenta serves as a natural filter that keeps __________ diseases, germs, and impurities from being passed from the mother to the baby.

A) all
B) many, but certainly not all
C) very few
D) immunities to

Question 28

The period of the fetus begins

A) at the beginning of the second trimester.
B) at the end of the eighth week.
C) upon implantation.
D) upon engagement.

Question 29

The principle change that occurs in the fetus is the

A) development of organs and growth in size and weight.
B) formation of essential internal organs.
C) development of the prenatal support structures (amniotic sac, placenta, and umbilical cord).
D) tendency to practise using essential organs, such as the lungs.

Question 30

At the __________ month, fetal growth suddenly slows down.

A) sixth
B) seventh
C) eighth
D) ninth

Question 31

The average fetus is born __________ days after conception.

A) 200
B) 266
C) 300
D) 365

Question 32

In the Western world, the average newborn is approximately __________ centimetres long.

A) 25
B) 43
C) 51
D) 58

Question 33

In the Western world, the average baby weighs approximately

A) 2.5 to 3 kilograms
B) 3 to 3.5 kilograms
C) 3.5 to 4 kilograms
D) 4 to 4.5 kilograms

Question 34

At what point in development are most of the 100 billion cells of the adult brain first apparent?

A) at 3 months gestational age
B) at 5 months gestational age
C) at birth
D) at age 2 years

Question 35

Which of the following statements most accurately captures the true state of prenatal brain development?

A) Both the number of brain cells and connections among brain cells continue to develop throughout the lifespan.
B) All of the 100 billion cells of the adult brain are present in the fetus.
C) All of the connections between cells in the brain are completely formed by the end of gestation.
D) Most of the 100 billion cells of the adult brain are present in the five-month old fetus.

Question 36

Male external sex organs appear

A) during the period of the zygote.
B) around the fifth week.
C) by the end of the first trimester.
D) by the end of the second trimester.

Question 37

All the _________ that a girl will ever possess, are present the moment she is born.

A) precursors of body cells
B) oocytes
C) mature ova
D) precursors of oocytes

Question 38

By the third month of gestation, the fetus

A) may be activated by a loud noise.
B) exhibits the sucking reflex when touched on the lips
C) seems to have regular cycles of sleep and activity.
D) moves in response to touch.

Question 39

A 3-month-old fetus is capable of all the following except

A) wiggling its toes.
B) moving its whole body in response to touch.
C) sucking in response to a touch on the lips.
D) forming a fist.

Question 40

At this point in time, the age of viability is set at around __________ weeks of fetal age.

A) 11 - 12
B) 17 - 18
C) 23 - 24
D) 29 - 30

Question 41

The age of viability refers to the age at which

A) infants can survive outside the uterine environment.
B) infants can survive fetal surgery.
C) infants can survive outside the environment of an incubator.
D) zygotes can survive in a test tube.

Question 42

Catherine is pregnant with her first child. She has started having heavy contractions and is bleeding. After how many weeks of gestation is the baby most likely to survive?

A) 12 weeks
B) 20 weeks
C) 22 weeks
D) None of these alternatives are correct.

Question 43

What is the primary obstacle to independent life faced by infants born prematurely?

A) The inability to digest food
B) The inability to regulate body temperature
C) The inability to breathe effectively
D) The inability to form attachments with parents

Question 44

Babies born prematurely are likely to have problems with all of the following except

A) respiration.
B) maintaining a constant body temperature.
C) fighting infections.
D) too much subcutaneous fat.

Question 45

During the final month of prenatal development the fetus

A) develops critical internal organs.
B) receives antibodies from its mother.
C) experiences a significant increase in rate of weight gain.
D) continues to develop critical brain cells.

Question 46

Natasha has just given birth to her child after 26 weeks of gestation. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the primary concern the doctors will have?

A) The baby's respiration
B) The baby's limb development
C) The baby's heart development
D) None of the above alternatives is correct

Question 47

Golombok et al. compared families whose children were conceived naturally vs. conceived via reproductive technology vs. children who were adopted. Which is an accurate statement about their results?

A) Degree of genetic ties between parents and children is positively correlated with parenting effectiveness.
B) At the time of a longitudinal follow-up, parents who had difficulties conceiving were the warmest and most emotionally involved with their children.
C) Children who were conceived naturally were more socially adjusted than children conceived via reproductive technology.
D) Parents' strong commitment to parenthood may be more important than degree of genetic relatedness.

Question 48

Approximately what percentage of the early school-aged population appears to suffer from congenital malformations?

A) 1%
B) 6%
C) 10%
D) 20%

Question 49

Nongenetic agents that can cause abnormal fetal development are called

A) toxins.
B) translocations.
C) teratogens.
D) mutations.

Question 50

Researchers in the field of psychoteratology investigate

A) the behavioural effects of teratogens.
B) congenital malformations linked to the psychological state of the mother during pregnancy.
C) the effects of drugs taken to treat psychological disorders such as schizophrenia.
D) the psychological consequences of suffering from a teratogenic disorder.

Question 51

In ancient times, the existence of congenital malformations was explained in many ways. Which of the following statements does NOT summarize one of these ancient theories?

A) Malformed babies were half human, half beast.
B) Malformed babies were the result of consuming alcohol and unclean food.
C) Malformed babies were signs from above, that disaster was imminent.
D) Malformed babies, while in utero, matured abnormally in response to teratogens.

Question 52

In biblical times, congenital defects were often attributed to

A) the foods consumed by mothers.
B) the mating of humans with animals.
C) environmental influences such as bad air.
D) problems in the early stages of cell division.

Question 53

In ancient times, congenitally deformed babies were frequently

A) kept as servants.
B) worshipped.
C) feared and locked up.
D) put to death.

Question 54

The notion that the embryo and fetus live in a privileged environment was dispelled once and for all by which of the events stated below?

A) A rash of babies born to women who had taken the sedative Thalidomide while pregnant, were born with severe limb malformations.
B) There was an increase in eye, ear, and brain defects in babies born to women who had contracted rubella while pregnant.
C) Scientists documented the rates of miscarriage and babies born with congenital defects among women who survived Hiroshima.
D) The March of Dimes Foundation was established.

Question 55

The field of teratology expanded dramatically in response to the tragic consequences of which teratogenic agent?

A) Radiation
B) Thalidomide
C) Rubella
D) Alcohol

Question 56

Why are zygotes relatively unaffected by the effects of some teratogenic agents?

A) Once the developing fetus has reached the period of the zygote, all the major organ systems have been formed.
B) The zygote is surrounded by a barrier which teratogens cannot permeate.
C) The zygote's fluids do not mix with those of the mother.
D) The zygote is developing too quickly for teratogens to have any impact.

Question 57

Rubella affects only a small percent of the offspring of mothers who contact the virus within 2 weeks of conception, whereas it affects one half of the offspring of mothers infected during the first month following conception. How can these statistics best be explained?

A) The effects of a teratogen depend partly on timing.
B) The physical state of the mother during the first 2 weeks post-conception is much better than it will be at any other point in pregnancy so she is better able to fight off the effects of rubella.
C) Those exposed to rubella within the first month of conception were simultaneously exposed to many other toxic agents.
D) Teratogens differ in how they gain access to the fetus.

Question 58

At which point in development are teratogens most likely to affect organ development?

A) 2 to 8 weeks post conception
B) 8 to 12 weeks post conception
C) the second trimester
D) the third trimester

Question 59

Which of the following is a general principle outlining the action of teratogens?

A) The effect of a teratogen may be unique.
B) A teratogen will cause structural defects regardless of the point in time at which a fetus is exposed.
C) Teratogens always gain access to the fetus via the placental membrane.
D) The effects of teratogens on the genetic makeup of a developing embryo are similar across species.

Question 60

Which of the following statements about teratogens is true?

A) A specific teratogen will cause a specific effect, regardless of when during prenatal development the fetus is exposed to it.
B) Alcohol and rubella will cause similar defects if present at the same time in development.
C) All teratogens affect the mother by passing though the placental membrane.
D) The likelihood and degree of abnormal development due to a harmful agent increases with exposure and dosage level.

Question 61

A __________ is any non-food substance intended to affect the body.

A) teratogen
B) drug
C) liquid
D) non-nutritional substance

Question 62

Which of the following statements about drug use in pregnancy is true?

A) It is rare for women today to take any medication while pregnant.
B) Most of the drugs taken by pregnant women are prescribed by a doctor.
C) Women take an average of 4 to 10 drugs of some sort during pregnancy.
D) The most common effect of drug use during pregnancy is fetal limb malformation.

Question 63

What are the potential effects of using large amounts of aspirin during pregnancy?

A) miscarriage, bleeding, and newborn respiratory problems
B) staining of teeth and bone growth abnormalities
C) hearing loss
D) intellectual disability, eye damage, and hearing loss

Question 64

The effects of maternal smoking on fetal development include

A) heart defects.
B) growth retardation.
C) severe intellectual disability.
D) hydrocephaly.

Question 65

Phocomelia, a condition in which the limbs are drastically shortened, is associated with which of the following?

A) Thalidomide
B) Caffeine
C) Phenylalanine
D) Huntington's disease

Question 66

Sophie has given birth to a baby that was born prematurely and was born quite small. Given this information, to which teratogen is it possible that she was exposed to?

A) Lead
B) Smoking
C) Vitamin C
D) None of the above alternatives are correct

Question 67

Heroin-addicted expectant mothers often have all of the following except

A) poor nutrition.
B) inadequate health care.
C) lack of prenatal care.
D) phocomelia.

Question 68

Consequences of maternal heroin addiction on fetal development include

A) decreased risk of miscarriage.
B) low birth weight.
C) bleeding within the lungs.
D) All of the alternatives are correct.

Question 69

Newborns exposed in utero to __________ may experience more severe withdrawal symptoms than those who had been exposed to __________.

A) heroin, methadone.
B) marijuana; heroin.
C) methadone; heroin.
D) aspirin; nicotine.

Question 70

Babies born of heroin addicts are likely to suffer from which of the following?

A) Drug withdrawal symptoms
B) Alertness-regulation difficulties
C) Shakiness
D) Abnormally large eyes

Question 71

Cocaine-exposed babies are likely to suffer from which of the following symptoms?

A) Anemia
B) Tuberculosis
C) Irritability and shakiness
D) Urinary infection

Question 72

Studies suggest that maternal cocaine addiction

A) does not affect a fetus because cocaine does not pass the placental barrier.
B) may lead to addiction on the part of the fetus, but does not cause major malformations.
C) correlates with offspring who are difficult to handle.
D) has effects on fetal and newborn behaviour, but affected babies recover completely within the first month of life.

Question 73

What do recent studies suggest about the effects of marijuana use on fetal development?

A) Marijuana use leads to chromosomal damage.
B) Increasing marijuana use during pregnancy puts mothers at increased risk for miscarriage.
C) Prenatal exposure to marijuana is linked with major organ damage.
D) Between toddlerhood and adolescence, signs of mild cognitive impairments become evident.

Question 74

According to Fried (1989), most women reduce or stop their use of __________ once they become aware of their pregnancies.

A) alcohol and cigarettes
B) marijuana
C) crack
D) All the alternatives are correct.

Question 75

According to Fried and colleagues' Ottawa Prenatal Prospective Study, exposure to marijuana correlates with several symptoms in newborns. Which is NOT one of these symptoms?

A) Physical defects in body structure
B) Fine motor tremors
C) Exaggerated and prolonged startle responses
D) Poor habituation to visual stimuli

Question 76

According to the Ottawa Prenatal Prospective Study, long-lasting correlates of prenatal exposure to marijuana include

A) arousal and sleep cycle difficulties.
B) impairments in short-term memory, metacognitive awareness, and inhibition.
C) lower overall intelligence and alertness difficulties.
D) All the alternatives are correct.

Question 77

According to the Ottawa Prenatal Prospective Study, long-lasting correlates of prenatal exposure to marijuana include

A) impulsivity and problem-solving difficulties.
B) arousal and sleep cycle difficulties.
C) lower overall intelligence.
D) All the alternatives are correct.

Question 78

Prenatal marijuana exposure is associated with increased risk for

A) brain bleeding, low blood sugar and jaundice.
B) difficulty regulating levels of alertness.
C) marijuana use in adolescence.
D) cigarette and marijuana use in adolescence.

Question 79

Newborns of mothers who used marijuana heavily during pregnancy

A) appear to be no different from babies of mothers who avoided drugs during pregnancy.
B) habituate poorly to visual stimuli.
C) are at an increased risk for limb deformities.
D) tend to have insatiable appetites.

Question 80

Research into the effects of marijuana exposure on the developing baby indicates that negative effects

A) are less likely if the users engage in other good health practices.
B) are imminent and long-lasting.
C) only seem to last for the first two weeks after birth.
D) can include an early addiction to marijuana.