Deck 3: Genetics: The Biological Context of Development

Question 1

Our genes

A) produce effects, most of which are observable at birth.
B) guide development throughout childhood.
C) guide, regulate, and influence development throughout the lifespan.
D) are the sole determinants of our individuality.

Answer 1

guide, regulate, and influence development throughout the lifespan.

Question 2

DNA is found in

A) cytoplasm.
B) the cell membrane.
C) proteins.
D) chromosomes.

Answer 2

chromosomes.

Question 3

DNA is found in

A) cytoplasm.
B) the cell membrane.
C) proteins.
D) the nucleus of each of our body cells.

Answer 3

the nucleus of each of our body cells.

Question 4

How many chromosomes do body cells carry in their nuclei?

A) 23 single chromosomes
B) 23 pairs of chromosomes
C) 46 pairs of chromosomes
D) 2 chromosomes

Question 5

Body cells duplicate by the chromosomes

A) doubling in number, then dividing into two identical child cells.
B) doubling in number, then dividing into four identical child cells.
C) doubling in number, then dividing into two non-identical child cells.
D) quadrupling in number, then dividing into four non-identical child cells.

Question 6

The process by which a parent cell produces two identical child cells by the chromosomes doubling in number, then dividing in two is known as

A) meiosis.
B) mitosis.
C) crossing over.
D) mutation.

Question 7

The process by which germ cells duplicate is known as

A) reduplication.
B) mitosis.
C) crossing over.
D) meiosis.

Question 8

The process in which cells duplicate, then divide two times, producing four cells, each with 23 single chromosomes is known as

A) replication.
B) mitosis.
C) meiosis.
D) doubling.

Question 9

The four cells that are present upon completion of meiosis are

A) identical to each other.
B) identical to the parent cell.
C) identical both to each other and to the parent cell.
D) genetically unique.

Question 10

The process by which genetic material is exchanged between chromosomes during meiosis is known as

A) mutation.
B) duplication.
C) carrying.
D) crossing over.

Question 11

A __________ is a segment of DNA that codes for the production of proteins.

A) gene
B) nucleotide
C) cystosine
D) chromosome

Question 12

Each rung of a DNA molecule is called a(n)

A) allele.
B) nucleotide.
C) gene.
D) chromosome.

Question 13

During cell division, the DNA "unzips" down the middle and because __________, two identical copies will be produced.

A) the links have been broken
B) each half of the nucleotide serves as a blueprint
C) of meiosis
D) the rungs of DNA have a phenomenal ability to repair themselves

Question 14

On average, a gene contains __________ nucleotides, although some contain up to two million.

A) 1,000
B) 10,000
C) 30,000
D) 40,000

Question 15

Which of the following factors are critical in determining who we become as a species?

A) The specific genes found in our chromosomes
B) The number and precise sequence of nucleotides in genes
C) The sequence of specific genes
D) The number of specific genes

Question 16

Alleles are

A) a stair-like, double-helix molecule that carries genetic information on chromosomes.
B) a segment of DNA on the chromosome.
C) genes for the same trait located in the same place on a pair of chromosomes.
D) structural genes only.

Question 17

The job of __________ is to guide the production of proteins; the job of __________ is to control the activities of the structural genes.

A) RNA; DNA
B) alleles; chromosomes
C) structural genes; regulator genes
D) meiosis; mitosis

Question 18

The Human Genome Project provided evidence to show that humans have approximately __________ genes.

A) 200 million
B) 30 million
C) 140 thousand
D) 28 thousand

Question 19

According to the Human Genome Project, _____ of our DNA is code for proteins; in contrast, _____ of the DNA of bacteria codes for protein.

A) 2%; 5%
B) 5%; 2%
C) 2%; 85%
D) 85%; 5%

Question 20

A medical implication arising from work on the Human Genome Project includes increases in the sensitivity of detecting

A) chromosomal abnormalities.
B) adverse drug reactions.
C) small losses or gains in genetic material.
D) All the responses are accurate.

Question 21

Most of the genes on our DNA strands are approximately __________ base pairs long.

A) 19 million
B) 200 thousand
C) 28 thousand
D) four

Question 22

The purpose of the Human Genome Project is to

A) harvest organs for human transplant patients.
B) map and sequence the human genome.
C) clone human genes to aid in the production of synthetic hormones such as insulin and human growth hormone.
D) target specific genes so parents have greater control of the offspring produced by in vitro fertilization procedures.

Question 23

Gregor Mendel based his theory of inheritance on his extensive research with

A) mollusks.
B) drosophila (fruit flies).
C) pea plants.
D) chimpanzees.

Question 24

In his studies of the processes of inheritance, Mendel mated purple-flowered and white-flowered pea plants. He discovered that the flowers of the offspring were:

A) pale purple- or lavender-coloured.
B) purple.
C) white.
D) one-half purple and one-half white.

Question 25

In his studies of the processes of inheritance, Mendel first mated a purple-flowered pea plant with a white-flowered pea plant, and then mated the new offspring with each other. What did the second generation offspring look like?

A) All were purple-flowered.
B) Half were white-flowered and half were purple-flowered.
C) All were lavender.
D) One fourth were white-flowered and three fourths were purple-flowered.

Question 26

The observable expression of one's genetic makeup is known as the

A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) principle of dominance.
D) trait.

Question 27

One's overall intelligence is a

A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) allele.
D) double helix.

Question 28

Genotype refers to

A) the observable expression of one's genetic makeup.
B) one's inherited genetic constitution.
C) the amount of genetic material shared with members of one's immediate family.
D) the number of chromosomes in the cell.

Question 29

Parents who both have brown eyes, but carry genes for blue eyes

A) cannot produce a child with blue eyes.
B) are three times more likely to produce a child with brown eyes rather than with blue eyes.
C) have a fifty/fifty chance of producing a child with blue eyes.
D) are most likely to produce a child with green eyes.

Question 30

Tom has blond hair. His parents both have brown hair. Based on our knowledge of genetics, we know that

A) Tom is not a natural blond.
B) one of Tom's parents must carry a dominant gene for blond hair.
C) both of Tom's parents must carry a recessive gene for blond hair.
D) both of Tom's parents must carry a dominant gene for blond hair.

Question 31

Amy has blue eyes. Amy's blue eyes are an example of how her

A) genotype is expressed as a phenotype
B) phenotype is expressed as a genotype
C) inheritance is expressed as an allele
D) inheritance is expressed as mitosis

Question 32

If one parent carries two dominant genes responsible for a dominant trait (DD) and the other parent carries two recessive genes for the trait (dd), what is the likelihood of their child exhibiting the dominant aspect of the trait?

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%

Question 33

What is the likelihood of a child exhibiting a recessive trait if each parent's genotype is Dd?

A) 75%
B) 100%
C) 25%
D) 15%

Question 34

The principle of incomplete dominance is illustrated by which of the following facts?

A) The effects of PKU can be prevented through dietary adjustments.
B) Huntington's chorea does not emerge until early adulthood.
C) Even people who carry only one recessive gene for sickle-cell anemia show some characteristics of the condition.
D) Severe disorders caused by dominant autosomal genes are far less common that those transmitted by recessive genes.

Question 35

Which of the following facts about genetics and inheritance were proposed by Gregor Mendel?

A) Traits have either dominant or recessive inheritance patterns.
B) Some genes are neither entirely dominant nor entirely recessive.
C) The environment can play a crucial role in the expression of genes.
D) Most genetic traits are caused by multiple genes.

Question 36

Which of the following principles was not outlined in Mendel's theory?

A) Segregation
B) Independent assortment
C) Polygenic inheritance
D) Dominance

Question 37

Mendel's insights into the mechanisms of genetics included all of the following except

A) incomplete dominance.
B) the principle of segregation.
C) the principle of independent assortment.
D) that traits are associated with the presence of two elements, one inherited from each parent.

Question 38

__________ refers to the case in which a trait is determined by a number of genes.

A) Polygenic inheritance
B) Incomplete dominance
C) Codominance
D) Genomic imprinting

Question 39

________ refers to the case in which a dominant gene does not completely suppress the effect of a recessive gene, which is then somewhat expressed in the phenotype.

A) Polygenic inheritance
B) Incomplete dominance
C) Codominance
D) Genomic imprinting

Question 40

_________ refers to the case in which both alleles are dominant and each is completely expressed in the phenotype.

A) Polygenic inheritance
B) Incomplete dominance
C) Codominance
D) Genomic imprinting

Question 41

_________ refers to the case in which the allele from one parent is biochemically silenced and only the allele from the other parent affects the phenotype.

A) Polygenic inheritance
B) Incomplete dominance
C) Codominance
D) Genomic imprinting

Question 42

When an allele is biochemically marked so that it becomes silent, it is said to be

A) imprinted.
B) dominant.
C) recessive.
D) blended.

Question 43

Rachel and Ross are expecting a child. Rachel has brown eyes, as do both of her parents. Ross, on the other hand, has blue eyes. It is more likely that their child:

A) Will have blue eyes
B) Will have green eyes
C) Will have brown eyes
D) None of these alternatives are correct

Question 44

Genetic disorders may be caused by

A) errors during meiosis.
B) heredity.
C) environmental hazards.
D) All of the responses are accurate.

Question 45

Huntington's disease appears to run in Willy's family. Willy's father was diagnosed with it after Willy was born and, although Willy's mother did not suffer from the disease, Willy has now been diagnosed as having Huntington's disease. Assuming Willy's wife does not have the disease, what percentage chance does their 5-year-old son have of eventually showing signs of Huntington's disease?

A) 25%
B) 50%
C) 75%
D) 100%

Question 46

Which of the following genetic diseases is transmitted by a dominant autosomal gene?

A) PKU
B) Sickle-cell anemia
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Huntington's disease

Question 47

On average, how many potentially lethal genes for recessive traits does an individual carry?

A) 75
B) 4
C) 15
D) 225

Question 48

Huntington's disease and Tay-Sach's disease are similar in that

A) both diseases are caused by a single gene.
B) victims of both diseases are not likely to survive childhood.
C) both diseases can be treated with a special diet.
D) both diseases are caused by a dominant gene.

Question 49

Winston has a sex-chromosome abnormality. He has a very low level of blood protein essential for blood clotting. Based on this information, it is more likely that he suffers from:

A) Cystic fibrosis
B) Turner's syndrome
C) Hemophilia
D) Klinefelter's syndrome

Question 50

Ray is 5 years old and is showing a moderate intellectual disability and has immune and heart defects. He also has distinct facial characteristics. Based on this information, it is more likely that he suffers from:

A) Huntington's disease
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Turner's syndrome
D) Down syndrome

Question 51

What do Tay-Sachs disease and PKU have in common?

A) Children born with the diseases appear normal at birth.
B) Both can be treated by special diets.
C) In both cases, victims of the diseases are likely to die before age 6.
D) The diseases are most common among northern European groups.

Question 52

What do Tay-Sachs disease and sickle-cell anemia have in common?

A) Both involve errors in metabolism.
B) Both diseases are carried by recessive genes.
C) Genes for both diseases can display incomplete dominance.
D) Individuals with either disease are not likely to know they have the disease until after they reach adulthood and have possibly passed the disease on to their children.

Question 53

PKU and sickle-cell anemia are similar in that both diseases

A) are carried by recessive genes.
B) affect the blood.
C) eventually lead to retardation.
D) disproportionately affect those of northern European descent.

Question 54

Sickle-cell anemia is characterized by

A) red blood cells that are abnormally shaped.
B) accumulation of phenylalanine in the blood stream.
C) accumulation of fatty deposits in the brain.
D) deterioration of the nervous system.

Question 55

Currently, babies born in Canada are routinely tested for which of the following diseases?

A) Tay Sach's disease
B) cystic fibrosis
C) PKU
D) muscular dystrophy

Question 56

Which of the following genetic diseases can be effectively treated by diet?

A) PKU
B) sickle-cell anemia
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Huntington's disease

Question 57

Comparisons of sickle-cell anemia among the African-American population and the Bamba tribe in Africa suggest that

A) the incidence of sickle-cell anemia is equivalent among the two populations.
B) the sickle-cell gene offers some resistance to malaria.
C) sickle-cell anemia is caused by parasites that carry malaria so it is more common on the continent of Africa.
D) the symptoms of sickle-cell anemia are less severe among the Bamba.

Question 58

In 1957, it was discovered that __________ was a chromosomal disorder; this was the first disorder to be linked with evidence of chromosomal mutation.

A) cri du chat
B) Tay-Sachs
C) Down syndrome
D) Turner's syndrome

Question 59

Which of the following sets of symptoms best characterizes Down syndrome?

A) Intellectual disability, a cry like that of a cat, and neuromuscular problems.
B) Intellectual disability, distinctive appearance, cheerful, sociable disposition, poor muscle tone, and language impairments.
C) Intellectual disability, distinctive appearance, attention-deficits, hyperactivity, and aggressiveness.
D) Listlessness in infancy, blindness, by first year, and death, by four.

Question 60

Structural defects in the chromosomes

A) often occur during mitosis.
B) only involve sex chromosomes.
C) may cause Down syndrome.
D) are transmitted according to the same principles of inheritance as blood type and hair color.

Question 61

Which of the following genetic diseases is the result of an extra chromosome?

A) PKU
B) Cleft palate
C) Club foot
D) Down syndrome

Question 62

Individuals with Down syndrome

A) have an extra chromosome, usually chromosome 21.
B) are missing part of a chromosome, usually chromosome 11.
C) have three times as many chromosomes as normal.
D) usually pass the disorder on to any offspring they might have.

Question 63

Women between the ages of 45 and 49 are about _____ as likely to have a baby with Down syndrome as a mother under age 30.

A) twice
B) ten times
C) seventy times
D) two hundred and fifty times

Question 64

Which of the following sets of symptoms best characterizes cri du chat syndrome?

A) Intellectual disability, a cry like that of a cat, and neuromuscular problems.
B) Intellectual disability, distinctive appearance, cheerful, sociable disposition, poor muscle tone, and language impairments.
C) Intellectual disability, distinctive appearance, attention deficits, hyperactivity, and aggressiveness.
D) Listlessness in infancy, blindness, by first year, and death by four.

Question 65

Cri du chat syndrome results from the

A) deletion of a small amount of genetic material from chromosome 5.
B) absence of a protein normally found in all cells, most notably, in neurons.
C) existence of an extra chromosome.
D) deletion of a chromosome.

Question 66

Which of the following sets of symptoms best characterizes Fragile X syndrome?

A) Intellectual disability, a cry like that of a cat, and neuromuscular problems.
B) Intellectual disability, distinctive appearance, cheerful, sociable disposition, poor muscle tone, and language impairments.
C) Intellectual disability, distinctive appearance, attention deficits, hyperactivity, and aggressiveness.
D) Listlessness in infancy, blindness, by first year, and death by four.

Question 67

Fragile X syndrome results from the

A) deletion of a small amount of genetic material from chromosome 5.
B) absence of a protein normally found in all cells, most notably, in neurons.
C) existence of an extra chromosome.
D) deletion of a chromosome.

Question 68

Which of the following is a sex chromosome disorder?

A) Fragile X syndrome
B) Down syndrome
C) Cri du chat
D) Cystic fibrosis

Question 69

Which one of the following is second only to Down syndrome as a genetically-based cause of intellectual disability?

A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Fragile X syndrome
D) PKU

Question 70

Turner's syndrome, Klinefelter's syndrome, 47,XYY, and fragile X syndrome are

A) disorders of the sex chromosome.
B) all associated with deficiencies in language.
C) more likely to display antisocial behaviour.
D) None of these alternatives are correct.

Question 71

The principal difference between Klinefelter's syndrome and Turner's syndrome is that

A) Klinefelter's syndrome has a normal arrangement of sex chromosomes, whereas Turner's syndrome does not.
B) Turner's syndrome affects females whereas Klinefelter's syndrome affects males.
C) Klinefelter's syndrome is an autosomal disorder whereas Turner's syndrome is a disorder of the sex chromosomes.
D) Klinefelter's syndrome is the male opposite of the female version, Turner's syndrome.

Question 72

The principal difference between Turner's females and 47,XYY males is that

A) Turner's females have a normal arrangement of sex chromosomes, whereas 47,XYY males do not.
B) Turner's syndrome results from an extra chromosome whereas 47,XYY males result from the deletion of a chromosome.
C) 47,XYY males is an autosomal disorder whereas Turner's syndrome is a disorder of the sex chromosomes.
D) 47,XYY syndrome is the opposite of the female version, Turner's syndrome.

Question 73

Matty is very shy, has long arms, and an underdeveloped penis. Based on this information, it is more likely that he has:

A) Turner's syndrome
B) Klinefelter's syndrome
C) Cri du chat syndrome
D) Down syndrome

Question 74

Roger has severe spatial difficulties, an elongated face, is hyperactive and is prone to anxiety. Based on this information, it is more likely that he has:

A) Fragile X syndrome
B) Fragile Y syndrome
C) Klinefelter's syndrome
D) Down syndrome

Question 75

People share approximately _____ of their genes in common with aunts, uncles, nieces, and nephews.

A) 10%
B) 25%
C) 35%
D) 50%

Question 76

Henry Goddard's investigation of approximately 1,000 descendants of Martin Kallikak (a pseudonym), a soldier of the American Revolution, illustrates which of the following research methods?

A) Family study
B) Adoption study
C) Twin study
D) Chromosomal analysis

Question 77

Henry Goddard studied five generations of offspring of Martin Kallikak (a pseudonym), a soldier of the American Revolution. Some of the descendants were the product of a liaison with a retarded tavern maid while some resulted from Kallikak's marriage to a respectful woman of normal intelligence. What did Goddard conclude from his research?

A) There were few differences in the achievements between the two lines of descendants; this led Goddard to conclude that mothers contributed little genetic material to their offspring.
B) There were large differences in the accomplishments of the two groups, which Goddard attributed to the genetic makeup of Kallikak's two mates.
C) There were few differences in the achievements between the two lines of descendants; this led Goddard to conclude that Intellectual disability is not inherited.
D) There were large differences in the accomplishments of the two groups, which Goddard attributed to the childrearing strategies of Kallikak's two mates.

Question 78

Which of the following does NOT support the view that heredity has a major influence on one's intelligence?

A) Adopted children's IQs are more highly correlated with their biological mothers' IQs than with their adopted mothers' IQs.
B) Adopted children become more similar to their biological mothers in IQ as they grow older.
C) Adoptive (unrelated) siblings are more similar to one another in the early years than in adolescence.
D) Biological siblings have more highly correlated IQs than unrelated adoptive siblings.

Question 79

Adoption studies support the influence of genes on

A) intellectual ability.
B) hostile and antisocial behaviour.
C) schizophrenia.
D) All of the responses are accurate.

Question 80

Lee-Ann was adopted from China at the age of 1 year. Her records show that her biological parents both suffered from learning disabilities. Her adoptive parents, on the other hand, both have doctoral degrees. Based on this information, it is more likely that:

A) Lee-Ann will have a similar cognitive profile to her adoptive siblings
B) Lee-Ann will have a similar cognitive profile to her adoptive parents
C) Lee-Ann will probably obtain her doctoral degree
D) Lee-Ann will probably struggle in her academics