Deck 7: Project Cost Management

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Question
Definitive estimates are made one year or less prior to project completion.
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Question
The primary output of the planning cost management process is a change request.
Question
A budgetary estimate is the most accurate of the three types of estimates.
Question
If an important supplier goes out of business, management reserves can be set aside to cover the resulting costs.
Question
Supporting details for an estimate include the ground rules and assumptions used in creating the estimate.
Question
It is important for project managers to focus on indirect costs because they can be easily controlled.
Question
Overrun is the additional percentage amount by which estimates exceed actual costs.
Question
In a bottom-up estimate, the size of the individual work items is one of the factors that drives the accuracy of the estimates.
Question
Intangible costs can be easily measured in monetary terms.
Question
Parametric models are reliable when the models are flexible in terms of the project's size.
Question
Budgetary estimates are made even before a project is officially started.
Question
When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, one should include sunk costs.
Question
Estimates should become more accurate as time progresses.
Question
Analogous estimates are called activity-based costing.
Question
Contingency reserves are also known as unknown unknowns.
Question
One of the reasons why project cost estimates are inaccurate is because human beings are biased toward underestimation.
Question
A cost management plan can include organizational procedures links, control thresholds, and process descriptions.
Question
IT project managers must be able to present and discuss project information both in financial and technical terms.
Question
Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.
Question
Analogous estimates are the most accurate technique to estimate costs.
Question
Which of the following is true of tangible costs?

A) They cannot be calculated in monetary terms.
B) They can be easily measured.
C) They are difficult to quantify.
D) Their examples include goodwill and prestige.
Question
The process of controlling costs primarily involves:

A) determining the policies for project costs.
B) managing changes to the project budget.
C) finalising the procedures for project costs.
D) determining a basis for estimates.
Question
_____ helps develop an accurate projection of a project's financial expenses and benefits.

A) Critical path analysis
B) Fast tracking
C) Life cycle costing
D) Crashing
Question
Determining the budget involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual work items over time.
Question
If the cost performance index (CPI) is less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.
Question
If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work costs more than planned.
Question
Profits may be defined as:

A) expenses plus net income.
B) costs plus revenues.
C) revenues plus expenses.
D) revenues minus expenditures.
Question
_____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance.

A) Determining the budget
B) Finalising policies for project costs
C) Controlling costs
D) Estimating costs
Question
The formulas for variances and indexes start with EV, the earned value.
Question
The project management plan and project funding requirements are inputs of the process of controlling costs.
Question
In an earned value chart, when the actual cost line is right on or above the earned value line, it indicates that costs are less than planned.
Question
It is important for project managers to understand that every cost estimate is unique.
Question
One of the main outputs of the _____ process is a cost baseline.

A) cost controlling
B) cost estimating
C) cost budgeting
D) cost planning
Question
_____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget.

A) Project scope management
B) Project quality management
C) Project time management
D) Project cost management
Question
Spreadsheets are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.
Question
Which of the following involves developing an approximation of the costs of resources needed to complete a project?

A) Determining the budget
B) Finalising the cost baseline
C) Controlling costs
D) Estimating costs
Question
A schedule performance index of one means that the project is on schedule.
Question
_____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project.

A) Critical path analysis
B) Cash flow analysis
C) Present value analysis
D) Requirements analysis
Question
A negative schedule variance means that it took lesser than planned to perform the work.
Question
Work performance information and cost forecasts are main outputs of the _____ process.

A) cost budgeting
B) cost estimating
C) cost control
D) cost pricing
Question
A cost estimation tool which involves estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total is known as a(n) _____ estimate.

A) budgetary
B) parametric
C) bottom-up
D) analogous
Question
Newtech Inc. hires John for the position of a software programmer to work on their new project. Salary paid to John by Newtech Inc. would be an example of _____ costs.

A) direct
B) indirect
C) sunk
D) intangible
Question
If the cost estimate for a project is a basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a(n) _____ estimate and as accurate as possible.

A) budgetary
B) definitive
C) rough order of magnitude
D) analogous
Question
_____ uses project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.

A) Rough order of magnitude estimating
B) Parametric estimating
C) Bottom-up estimating
D) Analogous estimating
Question
Good Earth, a company manufacturing packaged food products, sets up its stores in Baltonia. However, a year later, the company closes the store down due to high operating costs. In such a scenario, the money spent in paying for the rent of the store in Baltonia would be an example of _____ costs.

A) recurring
B) direct
C) sunk
D) intangible
Question
Indirect costs are:

A) directly related to performing the project.
B) those that cannot be allocated to projects.
C) those that can be easily controlled by managers.
D) not directly related to the products or services of a project.
Question
Which of the following is true of contingency reserves?

A) They allow for future situations that can be partially planned for.
B) They are also known as unknown unknowns.
C) They are not included in a cost baseline.
D) They allow for dollar amounts to be used to cover existing, fixed costs.
Question
A _____ estimate is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs.

A) budgetary
B) definitive
C) rough order of magnitude
D) final
Question
A rough order of magnitude estimate can be referred to as a _____ estimate.

A) definitive
B) budgetary
C) final
D) ballpark
Question
Which of the following reserves allows for future situations that are unpredictable?

A) Contingency reserves
B) Management reserves
C) Known unknowns
D) Cost baseline reserves
Question
Which of the following types of estimate use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project?

A) Definitive estimates
B) Parametric estimates
C) Bottom-up estimates
D) Analogous estimates
Question
A cost estimation tool which is used to allocate money into an organization's budget is known as a _____ estimate.

A) budgetary
B) definitive
C) rough order of magnitude
D) ballpark
Question
The first step in project cost management is:

A) to allocate project cost estimates to individual material resources.
B) to plan how costs will be managed.
C) to control project costs and monitor cost performance.
D) to develop several estimates of costs for different types of resources.
Question
Which of the following is true of analogous estimates?

A) Their main disadvantage is that they cost more than other techniques.
B) They are the only technique which do not require expert judgement.
C) They are most reliable when previous projects are similar in fact with current projects.
D) They use project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.
Question
_____ are those costs that are difficult to measure in monetary terms.

A) Intangible costs
B) Direct costs
C) Tangible costs
D) Fixed costs
Question
Which of the following is true of a rough order of magnitude estimate?

A) It is used to allocate money into an organization's budget.
B) It provides an estimate of what a project will cost.
C) Its timeframe is always less than a year prior to project completion.
D) It is a type of estimate that is done in the final stages of a project.
Question
Which of the following is most likely to be a reason for inaccuracies in information technology cost estimates?

A) Estimates take a long time to be worked out.
B) People lack estimating experience.
C) Human beings are biased toward overestimation.
D) Only software development provides the scope for estimates to be accurate.
Question
Analogous estimates are also known as _____ estimates.

A) bottom-up
B) top-down
C) parametric
D) budgetary
Question
Soles is a footwear company which has recently set up its store in Ambrosia. To manufacture its products, Soles incurs a range of different costs. Which of the following would be an example of an indirect cost?

A) Cost of machines to produce shoes
B) Salary paid to factory workers
C) Electricity used to run its factories
D) Cost of leather used to manufacture shoes
Question
Which of the following is true of bottom-up estimates?

A) They are based on the actual cost of a previous, similar project.
B) They are also known as parametric estimating.
C) They are most accurate when they involve large, extensive work items.
D) They are time-intensive and expensive to develop.
Question
The _____ theory states that when many items are produced repetitively, the unit cost of those items decreases in a regular pattern as more units are produced.
Question
Cost variance is:

A) the planned value plus actual costs.
B) the earned value minus the actual cost.
C) the rate of performance minus earned value.
D) the planned value minus the rate of performance.
Question
The cost performance index (CPI):

A) indicates that a project is under budget if CPI is less than one.
B) can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project.
C) indicates that the planned and actual costs are equal if CPI is more than one.
D) is the ratio of earned value to planned value.
Question
Schedule variance is:

A) the earned value minus the planned value.
B) the earned value minus the actual cost.
C) the planned value plus the earned value.
D) the planned value plus the rate of performance.
Question
Which of the following is an output of the process of controlling costs?

A) Cost forecasts
B) Project funding requirements
C) Basis of estimates
D) Scope baselines
Question
Which of the following is true of the schedule performance index (SPI)?

A) It can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project.
B) It means that a project is behind schedule if an SPI is greater than one.
C) It means that a project is ahead of schedule if SPI is lesser than one or hundred percent.
D) It is the ratio of planned value to actual costs.
Question
Project costs, like project schedules, grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project, like the _____.
Question
The main goal of the _____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements.

A) cost budgeting
B) cost planning
C) cost controlling
D) cost estimating
Question
The main outputs of the _____ process are a cost performance baseline, project funding requirements, and project document updates.
Question
_____ are revenues minus expenditures.
Question
_____ costing considers the total cost of ownership, or development plus support costs, for a project.
Question
Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine _____.
Question
Which of the following is an input of the process of controlling costs?

A) Cost forecasts
B) Work performance data
C) Change requests
D) Scope baseline
Question
The budget is one of the three values of earned value management and is also known as _____.

A) earned value
B) actual cost
C) indirect cost
D) planned value
Question
The main outputs of the _____ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.
Question
Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost from _____.

A) earned value
B) schedule variance
C) planned value
D) rate of performance
Question
_____ costing helps to see a big-picture view of the cost of a project throughout its life cycle.
Question
Which of the following is true of earned value?

A) It is the actual cost plus the planned cost.
B) It is based solely on the total cost estimate to be spent on an activity.
C) It is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
D) It is also known as the planned value.
Question
The main output of the planning cost management process is a(n) _____.
Question
The additional percentage or dollar amount by which actual costs exceed estimates is known as a(n) _____.
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Deck 7: Project Cost Management
1
Definitive estimates are made one year or less prior to project completion.
True
Definitive estimates are made one year or less prior to project completion. They provide an accurate estimate of project costs.
2
The primary output of the planning cost management process is a change request.
False
The main output of the planning cost management process process is a cost management plan. Planning cost management involves determining the policies, procedures, and documentation that will be used for planning, executing, and controlling project cost.
3
A budgetary estimate is the most accurate of the three types of estimates.
False
A definitive estimate provides an accurate estimate of project costs. It provides details for purchases and estimates actual costs.
4
If an important supplier goes out of business, management reserves can be set aside to cover the resulting costs.
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5
Supporting details for an estimate include the ground rules and assumptions used in creating the estimate.
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6
It is important for project managers to focus on indirect costs because they can be easily controlled.
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7
Overrun is the additional percentage amount by which estimates exceed actual costs.
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8
In a bottom-up estimate, the size of the individual work items is one of the factors that drives the accuracy of the estimates.
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9
Intangible costs can be easily measured in monetary terms.
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10
Parametric models are reliable when the models are flexible in terms of the project's size.
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11
Budgetary estimates are made even before a project is officially started.
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12
When deciding what projects to invest in or continue, one should include sunk costs.
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13
Estimates should become more accurate as time progresses.
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14
Analogous estimates are called activity-based costing.
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15
Contingency reserves are also known as unknown unknowns.
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16
One of the reasons why project cost estimates are inaccurate is because human beings are biased toward underestimation.
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17
A cost management plan can include organizational procedures links, control thresholds, and process descriptions.
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18
IT project managers must be able to present and discuss project information both in financial and technical terms.
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19
Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine net present value.
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20
Analogous estimates are the most accurate technique to estimate costs.
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21
Which of the following is true of tangible costs?

A) They cannot be calculated in monetary terms.
B) They can be easily measured.
C) They are difficult to quantify.
D) Their examples include goodwill and prestige.
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
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k this deck
22
The process of controlling costs primarily involves:

A) determining the policies for project costs.
B) managing changes to the project budget.
C) finalising the procedures for project costs.
D) determining a basis for estimates.
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
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k this deck
23
_____ helps develop an accurate projection of a project's financial expenses and benefits.

A) Critical path analysis
B) Fast tracking
C) Life cycle costing
D) Crashing
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k this deck
24
Determining the budget involves allocating the project cost estimate to individual work items over time.
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25
If the cost performance index (CPI) is less than 100 percent, the project is under budget.
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26
If cost variance is a positive number, it means that performing the work costs more than planned.
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27
Profits may be defined as:

A) expenses plus net income.
B) costs plus revenues.
C) revenues plus expenses.
D) revenues minus expenditures.
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
28
_____ involves allocating the overall cost estimate to individual work items to establish a baseline for measuring performance.

A) Determining the budget
B) Finalising policies for project costs
C) Controlling costs
D) Estimating costs
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29
The formulas for variances and indexes start with EV, the earned value.
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30
The project management plan and project funding requirements are inputs of the process of controlling costs.
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31
In an earned value chart, when the actual cost line is right on or above the earned value line, it indicates that costs are less than planned.
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32
It is important for project managers to understand that every cost estimate is unique.
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33
One of the main outputs of the _____ process is a cost baseline.

A) cost controlling
B) cost estimating
C) cost budgeting
D) cost planning
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34
_____ includes the processes required to ensure that a project team completes a project within an approved budget.

A) Project scope management
B) Project quality management
C) Project time management
D) Project cost management
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k this deck
35
Spreadsheets are a common tool for cost estimating, cost budgeting, and cost control.
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36
Which of the following involves developing an approximation of the costs of resources needed to complete a project?

A) Determining the budget
B) Finalising the cost baseline
C) Controlling costs
D) Estimating costs
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k this deck
37
A schedule performance index of one means that the project is on schedule.
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k this deck
38
_____ is a method for determining the estimated annual costs and benefits for a project.

A) Critical path analysis
B) Cash flow analysis
C) Present value analysis
D) Requirements analysis
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k this deck
39
A negative schedule variance means that it took lesser than planned to perform the work.
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40
Work performance information and cost forecasts are main outputs of the _____ process.

A) cost budgeting
B) cost estimating
C) cost control
D) cost pricing
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k this deck
41
A cost estimation tool which involves estimating individual work items or activities and summing them to get a project total is known as a(n) _____ estimate.

A) budgetary
B) parametric
C) bottom-up
D) analogous
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
42
Newtech Inc. hires John for the position of a software programmer to work on their new project. Salary paid to John by Newtech Inc. would be an example of _____ costs.

A) direct
B) indirect
C) sunk
D) intangible
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
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k this deck
43
If the cost estimate for a project is a basis for contract awards and performance reporting, it should be a(n) _____ estimate and as accurate as possible.

A) budgetary
B) definitive
C) rough order of magnitude
D) analogous
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44
_____ uses project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.

A) Rough order of magnitude estimating
B) Parametric estimating
C) Bottom-up estimating
D) Analogous estimating
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
45
Good Earth, a company manufacturing packaged food products, sets up its stores in Baltonia. However, a year later, the company closes the store down due to high operating costs. In such a scenario, the money spent in paying for the rent of the store in Baltonia would be an example of _____ costs.

A) recurring
B) direct
C) sunk
D) intangible
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
46
Indirect costs are:

A) directly related to performing the project.
B) those that cannot be allocated to projects.
C) those that can be easily controlled by managers.
D) not directly related to the products or services of a project.
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
47
Which of the following is true of contingency reserves?

A) They allow for future situations that can be partially planned for.
B) They are also known as unknown unknowns.
C) They are not included in a cost baseline.
D) They allow for dollar amounts to be used to cover existing, fixed costs.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
48
A _____ estimate is used for making many purchasing decisions for which accurate estimates are required and for estimating final project costs.

A) budgetary
B) definitive
C) rough order of magnitude
D) final
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Unlock Deck
k this deck
49
A rough order of magnitude estimate can be referred to as a _____ estimate.

A) definitive
B) budgetary
C) final
D) ballpark
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k this deck
50
Which of the following reserves allows for future situations that are unpredictable?

A) Contingency reserves
B) Management reserves
C) Known unknowns
D) Cost baseline reserves
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
51
Which of the following types of estimate use the actual cost of a previous, similar project as the basis for estimating the cost of the current project?

A) Definitive estimates
B) Parametric estimates
C) Bottom-up estimates
D) Analogous estimates
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
52
A cost estimation tool which is used to allocate money into an organization's budget is known as a _____ estimate.

A) budgetary
B) definitive
C) rough order of magnitude
D) ballpark
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
53
The first step in project cost management is:

A) to allocate project cost estimates to individual material resources.
B) to plan how costs will be managed.
C) to control project costs and monitor cost performance.
D) to develop several estimates of costs for different types of resources.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
54
Which of the following is true of analogous estimates?

A) Their main disadvantage is that they cost more than other techniques.
B) They are the only technique which do not require expert judgement.
C) They are most reliable when previous projects are similar in fact with current projects.
D) They use project characteristics in a mathematical model to estimate project costs.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
55
_____ are those costs that are difficult to measure in monetary terms.

A) Intangible costs
B) Direct costs
C) Tangible costs
D) Fixed costs
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
56
Which of the following is true of a rough order of magnitude estimate?

A) It is used to allocate money into an organization's budget.
B) It provides an estimate of what a project will cost.
C) Its timeframe is always less than a year prior to project completion.
D) It is a type of estimate that is done in the final stages of a project.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
57
Which of the following is most likely to be a reason for inaccuracies in information technology cost estimates?

A) Estimates take a long time to be worked out.
B) People lack estimating experience.
C) Human beings are biased toward overestimation.
D) Only software development provides the scope for estimates to be accurate.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
58
Analogous estimates are also known as _____ estimates.

A) bottom-up
B) top-down
C) parametric
D) budgetary
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
59
Soles is a footwear company which has recently set up its store in Ambrosia. To manufacture its products, Soles incurs a range of different costs. Which of the following would be an example of an indirect cost?

A) Cost of machines to produce shoes
B) Salary paid to factory workers
C) Electricity used to run its factories
D) Cost of leather used to manufacture shoes
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
60
Which of the following is true of bottom-up estimates?

A) They are based on the actual cost of a previous, similar project.
B) They are also known as parametric estimating.
C) They are most accurate when they involve large, extensive work items.
D) They are time-intensive and expensive to develop.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
61
The _____ theory states that when many items are produced repetitively, the unit cost of those items decreases in a regular pattern as more units are produced.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
62
Cost variance is:

A) the planned value plus actual costs.
B) the earned value minus the actual cost.
C) the rate of performance minus earned value.
D) the planned value minus the rate of performance.
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
63
The cost performance index (CPI):

A) indicates that a project is under budget if CPI is less than one.
B) can be used to estimate the projected cost of completing the project.
C) indicates that the planned and actual costs are equal if CPI is more than one.
D) is the ratio of earned value to planned value.
Unlock Deck
Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
64
Schedule variance is:

A) the earned value minus the planned value.
B) the earned value minus the actual cost.
C) the planned value plus the earned value.
D) the planned value plus the rate of performance.
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
65
Which of the following is an output of the process of controlling costs?

A) Cost forecasts
B) Project funding requirements
C) Basis of estimates
D) Scope baselines
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Unlock for access to all 100 flashcards in this deck.
Unlock Deck
k this deck
66
Which of the following is true of the schedule performance index (SPI)?

A) It can be used to estimate the projected time to complete the project.
B) It means that a project is behind schedule if an SPI is greater than one.
C) It means that a project is ahead of schedule if SPI is lesser than one or hundred percent.
D) It is the ratio of planned value to actual costs.
Unlock Deck
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67
Project costs, like project schedules, grow out of the basic documents that initiate a project, like the _____.
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68
The main goal of the _____ process is to produce a cost baseline for measuring project performance and project funding requirements.

A) cost budgeting
B) cost planning
C) cost controlling
D) cost estimating
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69
The main outputs of the _____ process are a cost performance baseline, project funding requirements, and project document updates.
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70
_____ are revenues minus expenditures.
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71
_____ costing considers the total cost of ownership, or development plus support costs, for a project.
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72
Project managers must conduct cash flow analysis to determine _____.
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73
Which of the following is an input of the process of controlling costs?

A) Cost forecasts
B) Work performance data
C) Change requests
D) Scope baseline
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74
The budget is one of the three values of earned value management and is also known as _____.

A) earned value
B) actual cost
C) indirect cost
D) planned value
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75
The main outputs of the _____ process are activity cost estimates, basis of estimates, and project document updates.
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76
Variances are calculated by subtracting the actual cost from _____.

A) earned value
B) schedule variance
C) planned value
D) rate of performance
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77
_____ costing helps to see a big-picture view of the cost of a project throughout its life cycle.
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78
Which of the following is true of earned value?

A) It is the actual cost plus the planned cost.
B) It is based solely on the total cost estimate to be spent on an activity.
C) It is an estimate of the value of the physical work actually completed.
D) It is also known as the planned value.
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79
The main output of the planning cost management process is a(n) _____.
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80
The additional percentage or dollar amount by which actual costs exceed estimates is known as a(n) _____.
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