Deck 8: Managing Human Resources and Labour Relations

Question 1

The process of attracting qualified persons to apply for the jobs that are open is called

A) searching.
B) soliciting.
C) interviewing.
D) recruiting.
E) selection.

Answer 1

D

Question 2

Cindy has placed an advertisement for a job vacancy in the employment section of the newspaper. This is a form of

A) profit sharing.
B) external recruitment.
C) job analysis.
D) vestibule training.
E) internal recruitment.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

When forecasting demand

A) industry comparisons are mandatory.
B) the company forecasts the number and type of people who will be available for hiring from the labour market at large.
C) employees are interviewed and asked how long they think they will remain with the company.
D) employees sign a contract stating the number of years they will stay.
E) a company must assess trends in past HR usage, future organizational plans, and general economic trends.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Which selection technique is most likely to introduce bias?

A) Interview
B) Application forms
C) Aptitude tests
D) Drug testing
E) Polygraph tests

Question 5

Cindy Stevens has developed a document that identifies the duties and responsibilities of a database administrator. This document is referred to as a

A) recruitment effort.
B) job quantification.
C) job description.
D) job advertisement.
E) job specification.

Question 6

Cindy Stevens is observing and interviewing several database administrators to determine the duties and responsibilities associated with their job, as well as the knowledge, skills, and abilities that someone must have to perform the job. Cindy is performing the HR function of

A) job analysis.
B) advertising.
C) promotion.
D) training.
E) staffing.

Question 7

The use of newspaper advertisements, visits to high schools, colleges, and university campuses, and use of employment agencies are part of

A) performance appraisals.
B) external recruiting.
C) community involvement.
D) internal training programs.
E) compensation studies.

Question 8

Joe manages 15 workers on a production line. He has asked each of them to create a checklist of all the duties they perform. Joe is working on a

A) job analysis.
B) job specification.
C) job description.
D) person-job matching.
E) job relatedness.

Question 9

Evaluating each potential candidate for an existing job opening and deciding on whom to extend a job offer to is called

A) recruiting.
B) screening.
C) interviewing.
D) decision making.
E) selecting.

Question 10

June has been given the responsibility of doing a job analysis, but she isn't sure what it means, so she asks you. You say that it is

A) a written statement which outlines the duties, tasks, and relationship with other positions in the organization.
B) an attempt to generate large numbers of qualified applicants.
C) the specific method by which the firm will attempt to reach its objectives.
D) the detailed study of the specific duties required for a particular job and human qualities required to perform that job.
E) an analysis of the characteristics of individuals who currently hold jobs with the firm.

Question 11

Cindy Stevens has developed a database that contains information on each employee's education, skills, work experience, and career aspirations. She plans to use this database to identify employees to fill vacancies. This data base is a

A) job specification.
B) skills inventory.
C) managerial grid.
D) job analysis.
E) replacement chart.

Question 12

________ is the set of organizational activities directed at attracting, developing, and maintaining an effective workforce.

A) Production management
B) Operations management
C) Developing a mission statement
D) Human resource management

Question 13

Gretta is observing and interviewing several database administrators to determine the duties and responsibilities associated with their job as well as the knowledge, skills, and abilities that someone must have to perform the job. Which HR function is Gretta performing?

A) Staffing
B) Promotion
C) Job analysis
D) Training
E) Retention

Question 14

What is the purpose of a skills inventory?

A) To plan and identify people for transfer or promotion
B) To list key managerial positions
C) To describe the specifications for a job
D) To assess trends in previous human resource usage
E) To hire people from outside the organization

Question 15

John is reading a document which describes the conditions under which his job will be done, the ways in which it relates to other positions, and the duties he needs to perform. John is probably looking at

A) a job specification.
B) a job description.
C) job relatedness.
D) person-job matching.
E) a job analysis.

Question 16

Mark, a manager in production, needs to determine the supply and demand of employees in order to develop specific strategies. This is known as

A) job specification.
B) job description.
C) performance appraisal.
D) job analysis.
E) forecasting.

Question 17

Forecasting the supply of labour involves two tasks. The first task is to forecast

A) future organizational plans.
B) the number and type of employees who will be in the firm at some future date.
C) general economic trends.
D) trends in past HR usage.
E) demand for certain types of employees.

Question 18

What is the first step in obtaining applicants who are both interested in and qualified for available jobs?

A) Interviews
B) Selection
C) Recruiting
D) Enlistment
E) Résumé differentiation

Question 19

Cindy Stevens has identified the knowledge, skills, and abilities necessary for a database administrator in her organization. She will record this information in a(n)

A) advertising budget.
B) employee analysis.
C) job specification.
D) staffing survey.
E) on-the-job training agreement.

Question 20

Which of the following is considered the starting point of effective human resource management?

A) Advertising
B) Financing
C) Human resource planning
D) External staffing
E) Recruitment

Question 21

Once the recruiting process has attracted a pool of applicants, the next step is to select someone to hire. The intent of the selection process is to gather information from applicants that will predict their job success. The organization can only gather information about factors that are predictive of future performance. This process is called

A) psychological profiling.
B) screening.
C) job specification.
D) validation.
E) none of these.

Question 22

The process of considering present employees as candidates for openings within the organization is referred to as

A) profit sharing.
B) job analysis.
C) internal recruitment.
D) external recruitment.
E) vestibule training.

Question 23

After reference checks have been received, what is usually the next step in the selection process?

A) Screening interview
B) Interview with the manager
C) Give ability/aptitude tests
D) Polygraph tests
E) Reference checks

Question 24

Louis, an information technology manager, needs to select a new employee. Which of the following would Louis not normally use as a part of the employee selection process?

A) Performance appraisals
B) Ability and aptitude tests
C) Applications and résumés
D) Medical examinations
E) Reference checks

Question 25

Kim, a public relations manager, has just completed the process of checking the references of several job candidates. What should she do next?

A) Conduct screening interviews
B) Conduct medical and drug tests
C) Conduct interviews with the candidates
D) Give ability/aptitude tests
E) Administer polygraph tests

Question 26

Asking a prospective employee a question like "Tell me about a situation where you took the initiative" would happen when the ________ approach is being used.

A) aptitude testing
B) behaviour-based interviewing
C) curveball
D) testing
E) assessment centre

Question 27

All of the following are external recruiting methods except

A) advertising.
B) campus interviews.
C) a skills inventory system.
D) hiring "walk-ins."
E) union hiring halls.

Question 28

Which of the following is correct with respect to behaviour-based interviewing?

A) It assesses how well an applicant is likely to get along with other workers if the applicant is hired.
B) A question like "Do you often take the initiative?" is a good example of the kind of question that would be asked in a behaviour-based interview.
C) It focuses on finding out how an applicant has reacted to important or difficult job situations in the past and assumes that these are a good indicator of how the person will react in the future.
D) The interviewer asks the applicant a highly structured series of questions.
E) All of these are correct.

Question 29

The first step in selection is

A) asking the candidate to fill out an application form.
B) doing reference checks.
C) doing a job analysis.
D) conducting an in-person interview.
E) posting the job.

Question 30

Jerry, a marketing manager, has just conducted screening interviews with several job candidates. What should he do next?

A) Consider applications and résumés
B) Give a polygraph test
C) Give an ability/aptitude test
D) Give medical/drug/polygraph tests
E) Conduct an interview with the manager

Question 31

Which of the following is correct with regard to selecting human resources?

A) An application form is an inefficient method of gathering information about an applicant.
B) An assessment centre is a place where human resource professionals analyze an applicant's application form.
C) The interview is a popular selection tool because it is almost always a good predictor of future job success.
D) Interviewers can increase interview validity by asking "curveball" questions (i.e., questions that job applicants would never be expecting to be asked).
E) All of these are correct.

Question 32

Which of the following is correct with respect to behaviour-based interviewing?

A) It assesses how well an applicant is likely to get along with other workers if the applicant is hired.
B) A question like "Do you often take the initiative?" is a good example of the kind of question that would be asked in a behaviour-based interview.
C) It focuses on finding out how an applicant has reacted to important or difficult job situations in the past and assumes that these are a good indicator of how the person will react in the future.
D) The interviewer asks the applicant a highly structured series of questions.
E) All of these are correct.

Question 33

In an assessment centre,

A) potential employees are assessed by a psychologist to determine if they are suitable for the job.
B) potential employees perform management tasks while being watched by an appraiser.
C) the emphasis is on giving potential employees paper-and-pencil tests to determine their suitability for the job.
D) potential job candidates do actual (paid) work for the organization.
E) all of these are correct.

Question 34

Once the recruiting process has attracted a pool of applicants, the next step is to select someone to hire. The intent of the selection process is to gather information from applicants that will predict their job success. The organization can only gather information about factors that are predictive of future performance. This process is called

A) psychological profiling.
B) screening.
C) job specification.
D) validation.
E) none of these.

Question 35

Video assessment refers to

A) an expensive alternative to traditional hiring techniques.
B) videotaping employees on-the-job in order to evaluate their job performance.
C) having new hires watch videos that show a series of realistic work situations, and then asking them to choose a course of action to deal with the situation.
D) videotaping new hires during an interview in order to evaluate their personality.
E) none of these.

Question 36

Profusion Plants Ltd. sells a range of indoor plants. In the past there has been a problem with plants being stolen by staff. Which of the following represents the biggest limitation in reference checks as a reliable way of assessing the value of prospective employees?

A) Reference checks are illegal.
B) Reference checks obtained from previous employers are out of date.
C) Some previous employers may no longer be in business.
D) Some reference checks can be time consuming.
E) Reference checks tend to only tap positive recommendations.

Question 37

Jim is an accounts receivable manager who has received many applications for an accounts-receivable clerk position. What would he most likely do next?

A) Interviews with his manager
B) Reference checks
C) Screening interviews
D) Polygraph tests
E) Give ability/aptitude tests

Question 38

Asking a prospective employee a question like "Tell me about a situation where you took the initiative" would happen when the ________ approach is being used.

A) aptitude testing
B) behaviour-based interviewing
C) curveball
D) testing
E) assessment centre

Question 39

When Sara, the human resource manager, attempts to determine the predictive value of a selection technique, she is doing

A) validation.
B) certification.
C) training.
D) internal recruitment.
E) external recruitment.

Question 40

Health Connect is a start-up software development company specializing in the design of imaging for medical practitioners. They are at the stage where they need to recruit a team of technical employees. Which of the following is the best reason for not relying solely on interviews when recruiting the technical staff?

A) Interviews tend to have a poor record as a predictor of successful job performance.
B) Technical staff tend to be confident people, and they all perform equally well in the interview situation.
C) Start-up companies are not in the position to afford extra recruiting procedures.
D) Interviews used in conjunction with polygraphs can cause job candidates to confess to crimes.
E) Technical people need to be able to assess situations quickly and accurately.

Question 41

John has been gathering information from a variety of sources, including a manager's subordinates, in order to assess their performance. He is conducting

A) a traditional performance review.
B) positive reinforcement.
C) an internal appraisal.
D) 360-degree feedback.
E) tailoring.

Question 42

The process of introducing new employees to the organization so that they can more quickly become effective contributors is known as

A) acquainting.
B) orientation.
C) educating.
D) training.
E) developing.

Question 43

The informal interactions among managers for the purpose of discussing mutual problems, solutions, and opportunities is

A) mentoring.
B) off-the-job training.
C) on-the-job training.
D) group therapy.
E) networking.

Question 44

Which of the following is correct regarding performance appraisals?

A) They are required by law.
B) The appraisal process begins when the manager defines performance standards for the employee.
C) The process is completed when the employee's performance improves.
D) Organizations typically focus on information provided by the subordinate's peers.
E) All of these are correct.

Question 45

When an older, more experienced manager sponsors and teaches a younger, less experienced manager, this is known as

A) mentoring.
B) off-the-job training.
C) on-the-job training.
D) group therapy.
E) networking.

Question 46

The ranking method which consists of a statement or question about some aspect of an individual's job performance is called

A) a graphic rating scale.
B) the critical incident method.
C) the forced distribution method.
D) a simple ranking system.
E) the degree of agreement method.

Question 47

Jake is reviewing his salary, the bonus plan, the profit-sharing plan, and the benefit program. Jake is looking at the

A) wages system.
B) salary system.
C) compensation system.
D) pay-for-performance system.
E) merit salary system.

Question 48

Suppose a manager decides that 10 percent of the employees in her department will be categorized as "outstanding." She is using which tool of performance appraisal?

A) Simple ranking method
B) Complex ranking method
C) Forced distribution
D) Graphic rating scale
E) All-or-nothing method

Question 49

Which of the following is correct with respect to training?

A) Most on-the-job training is formal.
B) Vestibule training has been shown to be superior to on-the-job training.
C) The Build for the Future program at TD Bank is an example of vestibule training.
D) Networking and mentoring are essentially informal training processes.
E) All of these are correct.

Question 50

Vestibule training is

A) a work simulation in which the job is performed under conditions closely simulating the actual work environment.
B) an instructional-based program in which a trainer presents material in a descriptive fashion to those attending a trainee program.
C) a development program in which employees gain new skills at a location away from the normal work site.
D) training workers through the use of classroom-based programs.
E) a technique that ties training and development activities directly to task performance.

Question 51

When an employee performance rater recalls examples of especially good or poor performance by an employee, this is called

A) the process improvement method.
B) the inconsistency method.
C) the new workforce method.
D) the high-visibility method.
E) the critical incident method.

Question 52

A restaurant is undergoing a change in cuisine and style of service. It is important that new staff are hired and existing staff retrained. Why might the HR manager recommend vestibule training as being highly effective in this situation?

A) Prospective and present employees can be screened to see if they convey the restaurant's new ethos.
B) Off-site training has great value for evaluating the effectiveness of performance appraisals.
C) Employees will be reluctant to undertake training removed from the workplace.
D) The owners can be more confident that the change to the restaurant will be popular with customers.
E) Employees will see limited connections to everyday work in this type of training.

Question 53

When university and college teachers grade on the normal curve, they are essentially using which method for appraising the performance of students?

A) Forced distribution method
B) Simple ranking method
C) Graphic rating scale
D) 360-degree feedback
E) None of these

Question 54

You are responsible for training in your company and have created a management training program to take place at a local conference centre. This is an example of

A) vestibule training.
B) off-the-job training.
C) a lecture program.
D) video conferencing.
E) mentoring.

Question 55

An Ipsos Reid survey of over 1000 workers revealed that about ________ of those surveyed felt that they didn't always fit in well at work.

A) one-fifth
B) one-quarter
C) one-third
D) one-half
E) three-quarters

Question 56

The starting point in assessing training and development is

A) vestibule training.
B) job analysis.
C) needs analysis.
D) an assessment centre.
E) mentoring.

Question 57

Suzy has been assigned to a veteran employee for the first week on a new job. She will follow him around and learn the job by watching how he does it. This process is

A) vestibule training.
B) orientation.
C) performance appraisal.
D) off-the-job training.
E) on-the-job training.

Question 58

Elsie, a pilot, is using a simulator to learn how to fly a new jet without ever leaving the ground. In order to learn this new skill set, Elsie is using

A) job expansion.
B) job shadowing.
C) vestibule training.
D) job rotation.
E) on-the-job training.

Question 59

Which of the following is not part of orientation?

A) Providing information about pay days
B) Reading manuals
C) Taking a polygraph test
D) Introduction to co-workers
E) Learning about parking priorities

Question 60

Adam, the manager of sewing production, has been asked to rank-order his team from top to bottom. This is an example of what type of ranking method?

A) High-low feedback
B) Graphic rating
C) Top-down order ranking
D) Forced distribution
E) Simple ranking

Question 61

The type of incentive program for major league baseball players that will pay them extra money for hitting over .300 or making the All-Star team is called

A) gainsharing.
B) variable pay.
C) profit-sharing.
D) stock options.
E) a bonus.

Question 62

Rosalyn belongs to a company with a wellness program. The program may include

A) employment insurance.
B) better health insurance.
C) stress management programs.
D) life insurance.
E) workers' compensation.

Question 63

Wages are paid for ________, while salary is paid for ________.

A) getting a job done; time worked
B) time worked; number of units produced
C) number of units produced; getting a job done
D) time worked or number of units produced; getting a job done
E) time worked; getting a job done

Question 64

What is the fundamental difference between profit-sharing and gainsharing?

A) Profit-sharing rewards employees based on the profit the company earns, while gainsharing rewards employees on the basis of productivity improvements.
B) Profit-sharing has been shown to be more motivating for employees than gainsharing.
C) Profit-sharing allows more specific measurement of improvements than gainsharing.
D) Profit-sharing focuses on group rewards, while gainsharing focuses on individual rewards.
E) Profit-sharing is used mostly by large companies, while gainsharing is used mostly by small companies.

Question 65

Which of the following is correct with regard to compensation?

A) The term "compensation" refers to a number of different elements, including base salary, incentives, bonuses, benefits, and other rewards that employees receive.
B) There is a general consensus in society that top managers deserve the high compensation they receive because their jobs are very complex and demanding.
C) The average hourly wage in manufacturing is lower than the average hourly wage in retailing.
D) Job evaluation is a method for determining whether a worker in a given job should be paid a wage or a salary.
E) All of these are correct.

Question 66

What is the purpose of incentive pay plans?

A) To provide a mechanism for managers to constructively discipline troublesome employees
B) To motivate high performance
C) To reduce the amount of wages payable to employees
D) To permit accurate and honest performance appraisals
E) Compliance with federal law, which requires incentives such as social insurance and workers' compensation

Question 67

All of the following are considered incentive systems except

A) profit-sharing plans.
B) benefits.
C) individual incentive plans.
D) gainsharing.
E) sales commissions.

Question 68

A survey by the Conference Board of Canada found that ________ percent of Canadian companies offer incentive programs.

A) 20
B) 33
C) 48
D) 64
E) 80

Question 69

Sammy is looking at his pay cheque. He received $900 for producing 75 units. This pay is called

A) merit pay.
B) a stock option.
C) knowledge-based pay.
D) piece-rate incentive plan.
E) skill-based pay.

Question 70

________ generally refer to hourly compensation paid to operating employees, while ________ generally refers to a yearly amount that is to be paid to an employee.

A) Workers' compensation; salary
B) Salary; bonus
C) Bonus pay; salary
D) Salary; wages
E) Wages; salary

Question 71

Bill is looking at his pay cheque. He worked 38 hours last week and since he is paid $10.00 per hour, his gross pay was $380.00. Bill's compensation is in the form of

A) variable pay.
B) workers' compensation.
C) salary.
D) wages.
E) bonus.

Question 72

Under ________, profits earned above a certain level are distributed to employees, while under ________, bonuses are distributed to employees when a company's costs are reduced through greater work efficiency.

A) protection plans; pay-for-knowledge plans
B) profit-sharing; gainsharing
C) gainsharing; profit-sharing
D) a piece-rate incentive plan; a salary plan
E) none of these

Question 73

A survey by the Conference Board of Canada found that ________ percent of the companies that have an incentive programs don't measure the effectiveness of the programs.

A) 23
B) 36
C) 44
D) 51
E) 69

Question 74

When an employee is paid a certain amount of money for every unit produced, this is a

A) salary program.
B) piece-rate incentive program.
C) wage program.
D) pay-for-performance.
E) job evaluation.

Question 75

At Palliser Furniture, any profit resulting from production that exceeds a certain level is split 50-50 between the company and the employees. This is an example of

A) gainsharing.
B) skill-based pay.
C) pay-for-knowledge.
D) profit-sharing.
E) a bonus.

Question 76

Shawn has been hurt while working on his job. The cost for him to have the injury repaired and to recuperate is covered under

A) major medical insurance.
B) disability insurance.
C) health insurance.
D) workers' compensation.
E) hospitalization insurance.

Question 77

Scott is looking at his pay cheque. He worked 48 hours last week but got paid the same as he did the previous week when he worked only 36 hours. His compensation plan is based on

A) workers' compensation.
B) bonuses.
C) variable pay.
D) wages.
E) salary.

Question 78

A web design company, Gen Max, is expanding rapidly and needs to hire middle managers in a climate where first to market is an imperative. Which incentive plan for these employees would best help the firm achieve its first-to-market goal?

A) Pay for performance
B) Merit raises
C) Profit-sharing
D) Gainsharing
E) Pay-for-knowledge

Question 79

________ distribute bonuses to all employees in a company based upon reduced costs from working more efficiently.

A) Profit-sharing plans
B) Gainsharing plans
C) Merit salary systems
D) Bona fide occupational requirement plans
E) Assessment centre plans

Question 80

After a very successful year when the firm exceeded targeted earnings levels by 10 percent, each employee received extra pay equal to 10 percent of what they earned for the year. This plan is called

A) merit salary.
B) pay-for-knowledge.
C) profit-sharing.
D) gainsharing.
E) pay-for-performance.