Deck 8: The Cellular Basis of Reproduction and Inheritance

Question 1

Strictly speaking, the phrase "like begets like" refers to

A)all forms of reproduction.
B)sexual reproduction only.
C)asexual reproduction only.
D)production of gametes from a premeiotic cell.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The genetic material is duplicated during

A)the mitotic phase.
B)G₁.
C)the S phase.
D)G₂.

Answer 2

C

Question 3

Prior to mitosis, each chromosome of a eukaryotic cell consists of a pair of identical structures called

A)chromatin.
B)sister chromosomes.
C)nucleoli.
D)sister chromatids.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which of the following statements regarding sexual and asexual reproduction is true?

A)Cell division only occurs after sexual reproduction.
B)Only offspring from asexual reproduction inherit traits from two parents.
C)Sexual reproduction typically includes the development of unfertilized eggs.
D)Sexual reproduction is more likely to increase genetic variation than is asexual reproduction.

Question 5

The creation of genetically identical offspring by a single parent, without the participation of sperm and egg, is called

A)asexual reproduction.
B)sexual reproduction.
C)regeneration.
D)spontaneous generation.

Question 6

The phase of mitosis during which the mitotic spindle begins to form is

A)interphase.
B)prophase.
C)metaphase.
D)anaphase.

Question 7

With the exception of identical twins, siblings who have the same two biological parents are likely to look similar, but not identical, to each other because they have

A)identical chromosomes but different genes.
B)identical genes but different chromosomes.
C)the same combination of traits but different genes.
D)a similar but not identical combination of genes.

Question 8

Looking into your microscope, you spot an unusual cell. Instead of the typical rounded cell shape, the cell has a very narrow middle separating two bulging ends. It sort of looks like the number 8! You realize that this cell is

A)undergoing cytokinesis.
B)in the S phase of interphase.
C)in the G₁ phase of interphase.
D)about to undergo mitosis.

Question 9

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up on a plane equidistant from the two spindle poles?

A)prophase
B)metaphase
C)anaphase
D)telophase

Question 10

Which of the following statements regarding prokaryotes is false?

A)Prokaryotic chromosomes are more complex than those of eukaryotes.
B)Most prokaryotes reproduce by binary fission.
C)Prokaryotic cells are generally smaller and simpler than eukaryotic cells.
D)In prokaryotes, daughter chromosomes are separated by an active movement away from each other and the growth of a new plasma membrane between them.

Question 11

During which phase of mitosis does the nuclear envelope re-form?

A)anaphase
B)metaphase
C)prophase
D)telophase

Question 12

Sister chromatids are

A)found right after a cell divides.
B)joined together at a centromere.
C)made only of DNA.
D)unique to prokaryotes.

Question 13

At the start of mitotic anaphase,

A)the centromeres of each chromosome come apart.
B)the chromatid DNA replicates.
C)nuclear envelopes begin to form around the chromosomes.
D)equivalent and complete collections of chromosomes have reached the two poles.

Question 14

Which of the following statements regarding cell division is false?

A)Cell division can reproduce an entire organism.
B)Cell division is necessary for development to occur.
C)Cell division is the basis of both sexual and asexual reproduction.
D)Cell division is common in eukaryotes but rare in prokaryotes.

Question 15

Eukaryotic cells spend most of their cell cycle in which phase?

A)interphase
B)prophase
C)metaphase
D)telophase

Question 16

Which of the following occurs during interphase?

A)a reduction in the size of the nuclear membrane
B)cytokinesis
C)cell growth and duplication of the chromosomes
D)separation of newly formed DNA to opposite ends of the cell

Question 17

The process by which the cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell divides to produce two cells is called

A)mitosis.
B)cytokinesis.
C)binary fission.
D)telophase.

Question 18

Which of the following helps maintain the structure of chromosomes and control the activity of genes?

A)the nuclear membrane
B)proteins
C)centromeres
D)ribosomes

Question 19

Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from prokaryotic chromosomes in that they

A)are simpler.
B)are circular in structure.
C)include fewer proteins.
D)are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus.

Question 20

Asexual reproduction requires ________ individual(s), whereas sexual reproduction requires _______ individual(s).

A)1; 1
B)1; 2
C)2; 1
D)2; 2

Question 21

Which of the following statements regarding the differences between mitosis and meiosis is false?

A)In meiosis four daughter cells are produced, whereas in mitosis two daughter cells are produced.
B)Cells produced by mitosis are diploid, whereas cells produced by meiosis are haploid.
C)In mitosis cytokinesis occurs once, whereas in meiosis cytokinesis occurs twice.
D)Crossing over is a phenomenon that creates genetic diversity during mitosis.

Question 22

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?

A)Mitosis provides for growth and tissue repair.
B)Meiosis provides for asexual reproduction.
C)In mitosis, the chromosomes replicate only once in the preceding interphase.
D)All the events unique to meiosis occur during meiosis I.

Question 23

Which of the following statements is false?

A)Gametes are haploid cells.
B)Two haploid cells fuse during fertilization.
C)An X chromosome is an autosome.
D)A zygote is a fertilized egg.

Question 24

Mature human nerve cells and muscle cells

A)become cancerous more easily than other cell types.
B)continue to divide throughout their lifetime.
C)are permanently in a state of nondivision.
D)cease dividing after a predetermined number of cell generations.

Question 25

A benign tumor differs from a malignant tumor in that a benign tumor

A)is cancerous.
B)spreads from the original site.
C)does not metastasize.
D)never causes health problems.

Question 26

Which of the following is probably the main factor responsible for the phenomenon of density-dependent inhibition?

A)a local accumulation of growth-inhibiting factors
B)cells' innate ability to "sense" when the organ of which they are a part has no need for additional cells
C)a local deficiency of nutrients
D)physical contact of cell-surface proteins between adjacent cells

Question 27

Two chromosomes in a nucleus that carry genes controlling the same inherited characteristics are

A)homologous chromosomes.
B)heterologous chromosomes.
C)complementary chromosomes.
D)parallel chromosomes.

Question 28

Which of the following shows the greatest promise as a cancer chemotherapy agent?

A)a drug that interferes with cellular respiration
B)a drug that prevents mitotic spindle from forming
C)a drug that prevents crossing over
D)a drug that prevents tetrad formation

Question 29

When animal cells are grown in a petri dish, they typically stop dividing once they have formed a single, unbroken layer on the bottom of the dish. This arrest of division is an example of

A)cell constraint.
B)density-dependent inhibition.
C)cell division repression.
D)growth factor desensitization.

Question 30

Which of the following must occur for a plant or animal to grow and develop normally?

A)The organism must receive a supply of the appropriate hormones from its parents.
B)The organism must be able to control the timing and rate of cell division in different parts of its body.
C)Sufficient light must be available to stimulate cell division.
D)Sufficient oxygen must be available to stimulate cell division.

Question 31

As a patch of scraped skin heals, the cells fill in the injured area but do not grow beyond that. This is an example of

A)density-independent inhibition.
B)density-dependent inhibition.
C)anchorage independence.
D)growth factor inhibition.

Question 32

Which of the following statements regarding the cell cycle control system is false?

A)The cell cycle control system receives messages from outside the cell that influence cell division.
B)The cell cycle control system triggers and controls major events in the cell cycle.
C)The cell cycle control system includes three key checkpoints to complete a cell cycle.
D)The cell cycle control system operates independently of the growth factors.

Question 33

You are asked to culture an unidentified sample of animal tissue. You notice that the cells seem to fail to exhibit density-dependent inhibition. The source of this tissue sample is most likely

A)a cancerous tumor.
B)skin from a human.
C)a liver from a cow.
D)the sperm-producing tissue of the testis.

Question 34

Which of the following features likely accounts for the difference between plant and animal cell cytokinesis?

A)Animal cells lack the microfilaments required for forming a cleavage furrow.
B)Animal cells lack chloroplasts.
C)Plant cells have cell walls.
D)Plant cells have two sets of chromosomes; animal cells have one set of chromosomes.

Question 35

Which of the following statements regarding the function of mitosis is false?

A)Mitosis allows organisms to grow.
B)Mitosis allows organisms to generate genetic diversity.
C)Mitosis allows organisms to reproduce asexually.
D)Mitosis allows organisms to repair tissues.

Question 36

Which of the following is a feature of plant cell division that distinguishes it from animal cell division?

A)formation of a cell plate
B)formation of a cleavage furrow
C)lack of cytokinesis
D)production of four (rather than two)new cells per mitotic division

Question 37

During which stage of meiosis do synapsis and crossing over occur?

A)interphase I
B)prophase I
C)prophase II
D)metaphase I

Question 38

Which of the following statements correctly describes the behavior of a tetrad during anaphase I of meiosis?

A)It goes intact to one pole of the dividing cell.
B)It splits into two pairs of sister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.
C)It splits into two pairs of homologous, nonsister chromatids, and one pair goes to each pole of the dividing cell.
D)It splits into four chromosomes, which distribute in random pairs to the two poles of the dividing cell.

Question 39

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is false?

A)Meiosis only occurs in the ovaries and testes.
B)All sexual life cycles involve an alternation of diploid and haploid stages.
C)Mitosis produces daughter cells with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
D)A normal human zygote has 46 chromosomes.

Question 40

A pair of sex chromosomes found in a human male is most like

A)a pair of blue jeans.
B)a bride and groom.
C)a knife, fork, and spoon.
D)identical twins.

Question 41

Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I and random fertilization are most like

A)shuffling cards and dealing out hands of poker.
B)cutting up a pie into eight even-sized slices.
C)alphabetizing files in a filing cabinet.
D)pairing up similar socks after washing your clothes.

Question 42

Karyotyping

A)shows chromosomes as they appear in metaphase of meiosis II.
B)can reveal alterations in chromosome number.
C)examines points of crossing over.
D)reveals the presence of cancerous genes.

Question 43

If a chromosome fragment breaks off and then reattaches to the original chromosome but in the reverse direction, the resulting chromosomal abnormality is called a(n)

A)deletion.
B)inversion.
C)translocation.
D)reciprocal translocation.

Question 44

Which of the following statements regarding genetic diversity is false?

A)Genetic diversity is enhanced by random fertilization.
B)Genetic diversity is enhanced by independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I.
C)Genetic diversity is enhanced by mitosis.
D)Genetic diversity is enhanced by crossing over during meiosis.

Question 45

Nondisjunction occurs when

A)a portion of a chromosome breaks off and is lost.
B)two chromosomes fuse into one.
C)members of a chromosome pair fail to separate.
D)an entire pair of chromosomes is lost during meiosis I.

Question 46

Which of the following statements regarding Down syndrome is false?

A)Trisomy 21 is the cause of Down syndrome.
B)Down syndrome is the most common serious birth defect in the United States.
C)People with Down syndrome usually have a shorter life span than normal.
D)Down syndrome is least likely to be seen in the infants of mothers over 40.

Question 47

Cancer is not usually inherited because

A)the chromosomal changes in cancer are usually confined to somatic cells.
B)people with cancer usually die before reproducing.
C)the causes of cancer are not usually genetic.
D)the cancerous cells usually interfere with the ability to produce gametes.

Question 48

Independent orientation of chromosomes at metaphase I results in an increase in the number of

A)gametes.
B)homologous chromosomes.
C)possible combinations of characteristics.
D)sex chromosomes.

Question 49

You are observing a single cell under a microscope. You go home for the night, and the next day you see four cells. The four cells look similar, and when you stain them with a dye that binds to DNA they all appear to contain the same amount of DNA. What likely happened overnight?

A)The single cell divided once to form four new cells via asexual reproduction.
B)The single cell divided once to form four new cells via sexual reproduction.
C)The single cell divided to form two new cells, and the two new cells each divided to form four total cells, all by asexual reproduction.
D)The single cell divided to form two new cells, and the two new cells each divided to form four total cells, all by sexual reproduction.

Question 50

Which of the following statements about nondisjunction is false?

A)Nondisjunction in meiosis can affect autosomes and sex chromosomes.
B)In mammals, extra copies of the Y chromosome are typically inactivated.
C)In general, a single Y chromosome is enough to produce "maleness."
D)Women with a single X chromosome have Turner syndrome and are sterile.

Question 51

A cell is initially diploid, but it has a unique cell cycle in that this cell goes through two S phases instead of one. What would the remainder of its cell cycle consist of if this cell is to produce four identical diploid daughter cells at the end of its cell cycle?

A)two rounds of mitosis and one round of cytokinesis
B)one round of mitosis and one round of cytokinesis
C)one round of mitosis and two rounds of cytokinesis
D)two rounds of mitosis and two rounds of cytokinesis

Question 52

Which of the following variations of the sentence "Where is the cat?" is most like a chromosomal deletion?

A)Where is cat?
B)Where is the the cat?
C)Where the is cat?
D)Where is cat the the cat?

Question 53

A skin cell of a red fox has 34 chromosomes. You look at the cell under a microscope and see that it has 34 chromosomes and one nucleus. Several hours later, you look at the same cell again and see that it has double the amount of DNA and one nucleus. A little while later, you see that it has 68 chromosomes and two nuclei. What stage of the cell cycle was this cell in when you viewed it at each time point?

A)First view: G₁; second view: G₂; third view: telophase
B)First view: G₁; second view: metaphase; third view: cytokinesis
C)First view: S; second view: prophase; third view: cytokinesis
D)First view: G₀; second view: G₂; third view: telophase

Question 54

You and your lab partner are observing a cell under a microscope, but you do not know whether it is a eukaryote or a prokaryote. Which of the following observations regarding the chromosomes would you use to immediately conclude that the cell is a eukaryote?

A)The chromosomes are circular in structure.
B)The chromosomes are housed in a membrane-enclosed nucleus.
C)The chromosomes contain very few proteins.
D)The chromosomes are very simple in structure.

Question 55

At a chiasma, two ________ are attached to each other.

A)homologous or nonsister chromatids
B)homologous or sister chromatids
C)nonhomologous chromosomes
D)daughter cells

Question 56

A karyotype is most like

A)a map showing the hidden location of buried treasure.
B)a movie showing the stages of the reproductive cycle of a beetle.
C)photographs of every couple at a high school prom.
D)the answer key to a multiple-choice exam.

Question 57

How many generations does it take to develop a new plant species by polyploidy?

A)1
B)2
C)10
D)about 20

Question 58

Which of the following types of organisms commonly demonstrates polyploidy?

A)mammals
B)reptiles
C)flowering plants
D)fish

Question 59

Without crossing over,

A)cells could not complete meiosis.
B)meiosis could not produce haploid gametes.
C)only a small number of unique gametes could be produced by a single individual.
D)genetic recombination could not occur.

Question 60

Both mitosis and meiosis are preceded by

A)prometaphase.
B)interphase.
C)prophase.
D)telophase.

Question 61

When observing a chicken skin cell in G₂ under a microscope, you count 156 total chromatids. How many chromosomes does a male chicken have in its sperm cells?

A)312
B)156
C)78
D)39

Question 62

After reading the paragraphs below, answer the questions that follow.
A technique called flow cytometry is used by scientists and researchers to count or sort cells based on specific properties. By labeling cellular DNA with a fluorescent dye, flow cytometry can sort cells based on the amount of DNA present, thereby making it possible to distinguish between cells that are in different stages of the cell cycle. Flow cytometry is especially useful to the medical community because it can help with the diagnosis of certain types of cancers.
Below is a typical set of data that you might obtain when running a flow cytometry experiment using a sample of healthy skin cells. Use this figure to help you answer the following questions.

If you used flow cytometry to sort a sample of cancerous cells that have been treated with a drug to prevent them from replicating their DNA, what peaks would you expect to see on the resulting flow cytometry data set?

A)A only
B)C only
C)A and B only
D)A, B, and C

Question 63

Below are three statements. Classify them as examples of independent orientation, crossing over, or random fertilization. I: The formation of a zygote from an egg and a sperm is an unpredictable event.
II: Random combinations of paternal and maternal chromosomes end up in gametes.
III: An allele on the paternal chromosome 18 ends up on the maternal chromosome 18.

A)I: random fertilization; II: random fertilization; III: independent orientation
B)I: random fertilization; II: crossing over; III: independent orientation
C)I: independent orientation; II: random fertilization; III: crossing over
D)I: random fertilization; II: independent orientation; III: crossing over

Question 64

Which of the following statements regarding mitosis and meiosis is true?

A)Sister chromatids separate during anaphase of mitosis and anaphase II of meiosis.
B)Mitosis takes place in your gametes, whereas meiosis takes place in your somatic cells.
C)In metaphase of mitosis and metaphase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate.
D)Independent orientation occurs during metaphase of mitosis and metaphase II of meiosis.

Question 65

According to the graph, at what maternal age is the incidence of Down syndrome equal to five times the incidence at age 40?

A)about 29 or 30
B)about 35 or 36
C)about 44 or 45
D)about 46 or 47

Question 66

You are a medical student and are reviewing a case study about a past patient. The patient was 4 feet 8 inches tall at age 38, was unable to have children, and had an above-average intelligence. The patient also had an irregular number of chromosomes. What diagnosis would you give the patient?

A)Turner syndrome
B)Down syndrome
C)Klinefelter syndrome
D)chronic myelogenous leukemia

Question 67

After reading the paragraphs below, answer the questions that follow.
A technique called flow cytometry is used by scientists and researchers to count or sort cells based on specific properties. By labeling cellular DNA with a fluorescent dye, flow cytometry can sort cells based on the amount of DNA present, thereby making it possible to distinguish between cells that are in different stages of the cell cycle. Flow cytometry is especially useful to the medical community because it can help with the diagnosis of certain types of cancers.
Below is a typical set of data that you might obtain when running a flow cytometry experiment using a sample of healthy skin cells. Use this figure to help you answer the following questions.

Which peak corresponds to cells in G₁? In S phase? In G₂?

A)A: G₁; B: G₂; C: S
B)A: G₂; B: S; C: G₁
C)A: S; B: G₁; C: G₂
D)A: G₁; B: S; C: G₂

Question 68

After reading the paragraphs below, answer the questions that follow.
A technique called flow cytometry is used by scientists and researchers to count or sort cells based on specific properties. By labeling cellular DNA with a fluorescent dye, flow cytometry can sort cells based on the amount of DNA present, thereby making it possible to distinguish between cells that are in different stages of the cell cycle. Flow cytometry is especially useful to the medical community because it can help with the diagnosis of certain types of cancers.
Below is a typical set of data that you might obtain when running a flow cytometry experiment using a sample of healthy skin cells. Use this figure to help you answer the following questions.

In this sample of cells, what stage of the cell cycle are most of the cells in?

A)G₁
B)S
C)G₂
D)mitosis

Question 69

Your friend is working in a lab whose members are supposed to be culturing (growing)animal cells in petri dishes. They keep complaining to you, however, that no matter what they do, they can't get their cells to grow. Which of the following is not a possible explanation for why the cells are not growing?

A)The cells need to be given the correct growth factors in order to grow.
B)The cells are too dense and thus need to be diluted in order to grow.
C)The cells are either mature human nerve or muscle cells, which do not divide and grow.
D)The cells are on petri dishes but should be floating in liquid media in order for them to grow.

Question 70

After reading the paragraphs below, answer the questions that follow.
Mr. and Mrs. Smith have three sons in elementary school. Two of their children are progressing normally, but their youngest son, Charles, has been much slower than his siblings in developing speech and language skills. His parents are concerned that he has a learning disability and decide to investigate further. Since some learning disabilities can be genetically based, their pediatrician recommends a chromosomal analysis.
The results show that Charles has a trisomy of the sex chromosomes, diagnosed as XYY, which is caused by nondisjunction in the formation of the father's sperm. The nondisjunction resulted in an extra copy of the Y chromosome. The extra copy was passed on to Charles during fertilization. Most often, this chromosomal change causes no unusual physical features or medical problems, but those with trisomy of the sex chromosomes do have a higher than normal risk of delays in learning development.
During which stage of meiosis could this nondisjunction have occurred?

A)telophase I
B)prophase I
C)anaphase II
D)telophase II

Question 71

After reading the paragraphs below, answer the questions that follow.
A technique called flow cytometry is used by scientists and researchers to count or sort cells based on specific properties. By labeling cellular DNA with a fluorescent dye, flow cytometry can sort cells based on the amount of DNA present, thereby making it possible to distinguish between cells that are in different stages of the cell cycle. Flow cytometry is especially useful to the medical community because it can help with the diagnosis of certain types of cancers.
Below is a typical set of data that you might obtain when running a flow cytometry experiment using a sample of healthy skin cells. Use this figure to help you answer the following questions.

Which peak represents cells that contain the most DNA?

A)A
B)B
C)C
D)It cannot be determined from this figure.

Question 72

Oncologists (medical doctors who treat cancer patients)routinely take biopsies (samples)of tissue from patients to determine whether the tissue is cancerous or not. What would be the best experiment to do to determine whether cells from the tissue sample are cancerous?

A)Count the number of chromosomes in the cells from the tissue sample and compare to the number of chromosomes in noncancerous cells from the patient.
B)Add cells from the tissue sample to a cell culture dish and compare their growth against a sample of noncancerous cells from the patient.
C)Measure the amount of DNA in G₁ in the cells from the tissue sample and compare it to the amount of DNA in G₂ in noncancerous cells from the patient.
D)Add cells from the tissue sample to a rat to see whether the rat develops cancer or not.

Question 73

If these four cells resulted from cell division of a single cell with diploid chromosome number 2n = 4, what best describes what just occurred?

A)normal meiosis
B)translocation
C)inversion
D)nondisjunction

Question 74

Jacobsen syndrome, which can cause heart defects, intellectual deficiencies, and bleeding disorders, is caused by a deletion of the terminal end of chromosome 11. What method could you use to determine whether an individual has Jacobsen syndrome?

A)Look at a person's skin cells in G₁ under a light microscope.
B)Perform a karyotype using a person's white blood cells.
C)Place a person's red blood cells in culture to see if they grow.
D)Count the number of chromosomes present.

Question 75

After reading the paragraphs below, answer the questions that follow.
Mr. and Mrs. Smith have three sons in elementary school. Two of their children are progressing normally, but their youngest son, Charles, has been much slower than his siblings in developing speech and language skills. His parents are concerned that he has a learning disability and decide to investigate further. Since some learning disabilities can be genetically based, their pediatrician recommends a chromosomal analysis.
The results show that Charles has a trisomy of the sex chromosomes, diagnosed as XYY, which is caused by nondisjunction in the formation of the father's sperm. The nondisjunction resulted in an extra copy of the Y chromosome. The extra copy was passed on to Charles during fertilization. Most often, this chromosomal change causes no unusual physical features or medical problems, but those with trisomy of the sex chromosomes do have a higher than normal risk of delays in learning development.
If Charles gets married and starts a family, which of the following chromosomal abnormalities has an increased chance of occurring in his children?

A)YO
B)YY
C)XO
D)XXY

Question 76

A cell that has a cell wall is undergoing cell division, and the following events are observed: the formation of a cell plate and the division of the cell into two daughter cells. What type of cell is being observed and what process(es)is it going through?

A)prokaryote; telophase of mitosis
B)animal cell; telophase and cytokinesis of mitosis
C)plant cell; telophase and cytokinesis of mitosis
D)plant cell; telophase II of meiosis

Question 77

What event will immediately follow the event shown in this image?

A)The cell will divide into two animal cells.
B)The cell will divide into two plant cells.
C)The cell will divide into four animal cells.
D)The cell will divide into four plant cells.

Question 78

You have two flasks (labeled A and

A)The cells in flask A will have grown significantly, but the cells in flask B will have not grown at all.
B)The cells in both flasks A and B will have grown significantly.
B)that each contain an equal population of normal animal cells. You place flask A in a machine called a shaking incubator, which shakes the flask at 37°C and keeps the cells moving so as to not allow them to adhere to the bottom of the flask. Flask B is allowed to sit in an incubator (without shaking)at 37°C. If you let the cells in each flask grow for a week, which of the following results are you most likely to observe?
C)The cells in both flasks A and B will have not grown at all.
D)The cells in flask B will have grown significantly, but the cells in flask A will have not grown at all.