Deck 4: Infection

Question 1

The structure of a virus includes:

A)a cell wall and membrane
B)metabolic enzymes for replication
C)a protein coat and either DNA or RNA
D)a slime capsule and cilia

Answer 1

a protein coat and either DNA or RNA

Question 2

An anaerobe requires which specific environment?

A)a dry environment
B)an acidic medium
C)air at temperature less than 61° F/16° C
D)the absence of oxygen

Answer 2

the absence of oxygen

Question 3

Which of the following is a characteristic of rickettsia?

A)It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe.
B)It exists in three forms.
C)It causes sexually transmitted disease.
D)It reproduces by budding.

Answer 3

It is a very small gram-negative intracellular microbe.

Question 4

Which statement applies to yeasts? They:

A)are usually considered to be pathogenic
B)consist of clusters of cells
C)may cause opportunistic infection in the body
D)are normally not found in resident flora

Question 5

How do antiviral drugs act?

A)interfering with cell wall development
B)decreasing cell membrane permeability
C)destroying new,immature viral particles
D)reducing the rate of viral replication

Question 6

A retrovirus such as HIV contains:

A)RNA and enzymes for its conversion
B)a double strand of DNA
C)many enzymes to limit budding of new virions
D)numerous mitochondria

Question 7

Entamoeba histolytica is transmitted by:

A)mosquitoes (bites)
B)inhaling contaminated particles
C)sexual intercourse
D)cysts in feces

Question 8

Fungi reproduce by:
1)budding
2)extension of hyphae
3)binary fission
4)production of spores

A)1,2
B)2,4
C)1,2,4
D)2,3,4

Question 9

What does the term carrier mean?

A)a person with active infection who acts as a reservoir for microbes
B)animals,insects,objects,or surfaces contaminated by pathogens
C)an individual who is contagious through infected secretions on the hands
D)an asymptomatic person whose body harbors pathogens and can transmit them to others

Question 10

Microbial mutation means that:

A)genetic information and some microbial characteristics have changed
B)pathogens become nonpathogens
C)the microbe survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate
D)the immune response to that microbe is strengthened

Question 11

The term nosocomial infection means :

A)transmission involves an insect or animal host
B)acquired in a hospital or medical facility
C)transmitted by a fomite
D)spread by direct contact with secretions from an open lesion

Question 12

Which of the following is a characteristic of resident or normal flora (microflora)?

A)It exists in all areas of the body.
B)Different species inhabit various areas of the body.
C)It is of no benefit to the human host.
D)It consists only of bacteria.

Question 13

A bacterial endospore can:

A)also be classified as an acid-fast bacterium
B)exist in latent form inside a host cell
C)reproduce very rapidly
D)survive high temperatures and dry environment

Question 14

Bacteria that form a cluster of spheres are called:

A)Bacilli
B)Diplococcic
C)Staphylococci
D)Streptococci

Question 15

Opportunistic infection may develop when:

A)pathogens enter the body but cannot colonize the site of entry
B)a member of resident flora migrates and colonizes a new location in the body
C)host resistance increases,and the balance of resident flora is restored
D)contaminated food or water is unknowingly ingested

Question 16

What method do viruses use to replicate?

A)binary fission
B)budding of a daughter cell from the parent viral cell
C)producing reproductive spores
D)using a host cell to produce and assemble components

Question 17

Transmission of microbes by direct contact includes:

A)touching a contaminated countertop
B)sexual intercourse
C)drinking contaminated water
D)inhaling dust-borne microbes

Question 18

Which area of the body is considered sterile?

A)stomach
B)pharynx
C)distal urethra
D)vagina

Question 19

Which of the following is NOT classified as a protozoan agent of disease?

A)Plasmodium vivax
B)Trichomonas vaginalis
C)Tinea pedis
D)Entamoeba histolytica

Question 20

The presence of the bacterial capsule:

A)promotes attachment of the bacteria to tissue
B)protects the microbe from phagocytosis
C)increases the release of toxins and enzymes
D)prevents replication of the bacterium

Question 21

Which of the following microbes is classified as an obligate intracellular parasite?

A)fungus
B)bacterium
C)virus
D)protozoa

Question 22

Secondary bacterial infections occur frequently during influenza epidemics primarily because:

A)antiviral drugs lower host resistance
B)the virus causes extensive tissue inflammation and necrosis
C)respiratory droplets transmit infections
D)the viral infection is usually self-limiting

Question 23

What does bacteremia refer to?

A)numerous pathogens circulating and reproducing in the blood
B)uncontrolled sepsis throughout the body
C)multiple infections,primary and secondary,established in the body
D)small numbers of microbes temporarily present in the blood

Question 24

When do clinical signs of infection appear?

A)as soon as pathogens penetrate the skin or mucous membrane
B)as soon as microbes begin to replicate
C)when the microbial colony is large enough to damage the host
D)after the immune system is activated

Question 25

Secondary infection may occur with administration of antibacterial drugs because the:

A)patient is allergic to the drug
B)balance of species in the resident flora is upset
C)mucosa of the stomach is irritated
D)infecting microbes spread to adjacent areas

Question 26

What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?

A)immunosuppression
B)bone marrow damage
C)presence of bacterial infection
D)an allergic or autoimmune reaction

Question 27

All of the following are mechanisms of antiviral drug action EXCEPT:

A)interference with attachment to host cell
B)block assembly of viral particles
C)interference with mitosis
D)shedding of protein coat

Question 28

The principle of Universal Precautions is based on:

A)using disinfectants at all times to eliminate cross-infections
B)not touching any open or bleeding lesions
C)sterilizing all instruments and equipment after each use
D)assuming that all body fluids from all individuals are possible sources of infection

Question 29

What does a vaccine contain?

A)attenuated or dead pathogens or their toxins
B)antibodies for a specific pathogen
C)memory B-and T-lymphocytes for a specific pathogen
D)chemicals to stimulate the immune response when a pathogen enters the body

Question 30

Which of the following is a local sign of infection?

A)fever and leukocytosis
B)headache and anorexia
C)pain,erythema,and swelling
D)nausea,weight loss,and fatigue

Question 31

When an infection or inflammation is suspected,what does leucopenia often indicate?

A)bacterial infection
B)viral infection
C)allergic reaction
D)septicemia

Question 32

The incubation period refers to the time period between:

A)entry of the pathogen into the body and the first signs of infectious disease
B)the onset of the prodromal period and the peak of the acute infection
C)the onset of clinical signs and signs of recovery from infection
D)the acute period and establishment of chronic infection

Question 33

All types of microorganisms can be killed by proper use of:

A)autoclaves
B)70% isopropyl alcohol
C)antiseptics
D)frequent hand-washing with antibacterial soaps

Question 34

Host resistance is promoted by all of the following EXCEPT:

A)prescribed immunizations
B)chronic respiratory disease
C)vitamin and mineral supplements
D)appropriate inflammatory or immune response

Question 35

The primary pathological effect of influenza virus is:

A)destruction of the mucosa in the lower respiratory tract
B)replication of the virus in respiratory secretions
C)destruction of leukocytes and macrophages in the lungs
D)inflammation and necrosis of the upper respiratory epithelium

Question 36

What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?

A)to determine the type of microbe present in an exudate
B)to provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth
C)to identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
D)to provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication

Question 37

Which of the following statements applies to Chlamydia?

A)The microbe exists as a chain of cells.
B)It causes a common STD.
C)It possesses many flagellae.
D)It is excreted in feces.

Question 38

Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe?

A)secretion of endotoxin
B)presence of a bacterial capsule
C)production of interferons
D)secretion of invasive enzymes

Question 39

A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:

A)destroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
B)destroy all pathogenic microbes in contact with the agent
C)reduce the replication of many bacteria
D)inhibit the growth of most spores and acid-fast bacteria

Question 40

How does penicillin act as a bactericidal agent?

A)interfering with cell-wall synthesis
B)blocking protein synthesis
C)increasing cell membrane permeability
D)preventing DNA replication

Question 41

When an infectious disease is occurring globally at a higher rate than usual,it may be designated as a/an:

A)sporadic occurrence
B)epidemic
C)pandemic
D)emerging disease

Question 42

Which of the following statements applies to Influenza A H1N1?

A)It alters human chromosomes to cause manifestations.
B)It usually causes severe respiratory distress and high fever.
C)Complications are common in the elderly.
D)It contains genetic material from avian,swine,and human viruses.

Question 43

Which of the following manifestations is usually present with influenza but not with the common cold?

A)sneezing,nasal congestion,runny eyes
B)generalized skeletal muscle aching,headache,marked fatigue
C)facial pain,nasal congestion,mild fever
D)nausea,vomiting,diarrhea

Question 44

Which of the following is a function of interferons? They:

A)block the invasion of pathogenic bacteria
B)reduce the inflammatory response to local infection
C)increase host cell resistance to viral invasion
D)may facilitate the spread of some cancer cells

Question 45

Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe?

A)capacity for opportunism
B)production of toxins
C)ability to mutate
D)invasive qualities

Question 46

Which of the following are characteristics of influenza virus?
1)It is an obligate intracellular parasite.
2)It contains RNA.
3)It usually causes nausea and vomiting.
4)There are three subtypes: A,B,C.

A)1,4
B)1,3
C)2,3,4
D)1,2,4

Question 47

Inflamed tissue is likely to become infected because:

A)the immune system is not effective in inflamed tissue
B)the increased fluid and protein in the inflamed area supports microbial growth
C)phagocytes cannot penetrate the inflamed areas
D)capillaries are less permeable in the affected area

Question 48

Prions are transmitted by blood and:

A)oral droplets on hands of food handlers
B)fomites
C)ingestion of contaminated meat
D)oral-fecal (cysts)