Deck 5: Diagnosis and Classification of Psychological Problems

Question 1

A "psychopathologist" is

A) an individual currently diagnosed with a mental disorder.
B) a scientist who studies the development and causes of mental disorders.
C) an individual currently diagnosed with antisocial personality disorder.
D) a clinical psychologist who endorses the "violation of social norms" definition of abnormality above all others.

Answer 1

a scientist who studies the development and causes of mental disorders.

Question 2

Recently,Elizabeth has felt anxious much of the time,and her anxiety has caused her to perform some compulsive rituals that are highly unusual.Her job and her friends,however,have not been affected.Elizabeth is "abnormal" according to the definition based on

A) violation of social norms and disability/dysfunction/impairment.
B) subjective distress.
C) disability/dysfunction/impairment.
D) violation of social norms and subjective distress.

Answer 2

violation of social norms and subjective distress.

Question 3

The DSM manuals are based in large part upon the 19ᵗʰ century work of __________ in the area of psychiatric classification.

A) Dix
B) Binet
C) Kraepelin
D) Breuer

Answer 3

Kraepelin

Question 4

Which of the following is a valid question regarding the disability/dysfunction/impairment definition of abnormal behavior?

A) What should the standards for dysfunction be?
B) Who establishes the standards for dysfunction?
C) Both of the above are valid questions.
D) Neither of the above is a valid question.

Question 5

Portia is a 33-year-old married woman working as an accountant at a large firm.Eight months ago,her father,with whom she was close,died unexpectedly,and a month ago,her firm announced that they would be laying off 40% of its accountancy staff within the next three months.At present,Portia is experiencing moderate depressive and anxious symptoms,and these symptoms appear to be taking a toll on both the quality of her work and the quality of her relationship with her husband.In the present case,which factor would be considered an etiological factor for her depression and anxiety?

A) the downturn in the quality of her marital relationship.
B) the downturn in her work quality.
C) her father's death.
D) more than one of the above

Question 6

Which edition of the DSM was the first to assume a theory-neutral approach to psychiatric classification and diagnosis?

A) DSM-II.
B) DSM-III.
C) DSM-III-R.
D) All editions of the DSM have used a theory neutral approach.

Question 7

What is the DC 0-3R?

A) a diagnostic classification system developed for children between birth and age 3
B) a shorthand diagnostic classification system developed for use by mental health paraprofessionals
C) a simplified diagnostic classification system developed for use by primary care physicians and other health care providers outside the mental health field
D) none of the above

Question 8

When a clinical psychologist uses a cutoff score on a test to determine abnormality,how is the cutoff score typically determined?

A) The clinical psychologist sets the cutoff score based on his/her experience with previous clients.
B) The authors of the test manual set the cutoff score, often using statistical deviance from the mean score as the primary criterion.
C) The clinical psychologist sets the cutoff score based upon his/her expertise in the field.
D) The cutoff score is determined by setting a range of +/- 1 standard deviation around the client's performance on a previous administration of the same test.

Question 9

ALL BUT WHICH of the following is a disadvantage of using the subjective distress definition of abnormal behavior?

A) It doesn't recognize the validity of the individual's own experience.
B) Not everyone who appears "disordered" to others reports distress.
C) It's unclear how much distress is enough to be considered abnormal.
D) It's unclear how long distress must persist in order to be considered abnormal.

Question 10

"Cutoff points" are an advantage of the definition of abnormal behavior based upon

A) statistical infrequency or the violation of social norms.
B) subjective distress.
C) disability, dysfunction, or impairment.
D) more than one of the above

Question 11

ALL BUT WHICH of the following statements is true regarding the definition of abnormal behavior?

A) Mental health professionals once debated the definition of abnormal behavior, but the debate has ended.
B) There is no single descriptive feature shared by all forms of abnormal behavior.
C) There is no discrete boundary between normal and abnormal behavior.
D) none of the above

Question 12

Which of the following examples is most clearly abnormal according to the "subjective distress" definition of abnormality?

A) a mean, callous supervisor who remains unaware that his/her employees hate him/her
B) a librarian whose religious hallucinations interfere with her ability to work
C) a child whose IQ is below the cutoff point for mental retardation
D) a high-functioning accountant who feels depressed about several aspects of his/her life

Question 13

Which of the following examples is most clearly abnormal according to the "disability/dysfunction/impairment" definition of abnormality?

A) a mean, callous supervisor who remains unaware that his/her employees hate him/her
B) a librarian whose religious hallucinations interfere with her ability to work
C) a child whose IQ is below the cutoff point for mental retardation
D) a high-functioning accountant who feels depressed about several aspects of his/her life

Question 14

All editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)have been published by

A) the American Psychological Association.
B) the American Psychiatric Association.
C) the American Psychological Society.
D) the World Health Organization.

Question 15

The most revolutionary changes in DSM,including the first application of explicit diagnostic criteria for the mental disorders and a multi-axial system,appeared in

A) DSM-II.
B) DSM-III.
C) DSM-III-R.
D) DSM-IV-TR.

Question 16

Which of the following is not accurate regarding the DSM-IV-TR definition of "mental disorder"?

A) The syndrome must be associated with distress, disability, or increased risk of problems.
B) A mental disorder is considered to represent a dysfunction within an individual.
C) Not all deviant behaviors or conflicts with society are signs of a mental disorder.
D) none of the above

Question 17

The only definition of abnormal behavior that does not involve subjectivity is

A) conformity to norms.
B) subjective distress.
C) disability or dysfunction.
D) none of the above

Question 18

Which of the following terms refers to the idea that,in evaluating a behavior,one must consider the cultural context in which that behavior occurred?

A) cultural relativity
B) cultural analysis
C) contextual analysis
D) contextual deconstruction

Question 19

DSM-I was published in the

A) 1930s.
B) 1940s.
C) 1950s.
D) 1960s.

Question 20

Which of the following statements is true regarding the relationship between abnormal behavior and mental illness?

A) An individual who exhibits abnormal behavior may not have a mental illness.
B) An individual who exhibits abnormal behavior that persists for at least 6 months has a mental illness.
C) Most of the mental illnesses listed in DSM-IV-TR are defined by isolated abnormal behaviors.
D) all of the above

Question 21

Nick is a patient in a psychiatric hospital who exhibits very poor personal hygiene.Recently,he has been physically attacking other residents,and he has attempted suicide.According to the DSM-IV-TR diagnostic system,his Global Assessment of Functioning would probably approximate

A) 90.
B) 70.
C) 40.
D) 10.

Question 22

Homosexuality

A) has never been a DSM diagnosis.
B) has always been a DSM diagnosis.
C) is not a diagnosis in DSM-IV-TR, but was a diagnosis in early versions of DSM.
D) is considered a diagnosis in DSM-IV-TR, but was not a diagnosis in early versions of DSM.

Question 23

Nathan has a rather aggressive case of multiple sclerosis,one that is beginning to affect his mobility and threaten his independent functioning.If Nathan presented for treatment at a mental health facility,on what diagnostic axis would his MS be noted?

A) III
B) IV
C) V
D) As a strictly medical diagnosis, it wouldn't be noted at all.

Question 24

Which of the following is true regarding the reliability of diagnostic classification?

A) Reliability provides us with important information about treatment and prognosis.
B) Reliability is very similar across the diagnostic categories of the DSM-IV-TR.
C) Reliability may vary between research- and non-research-oriented assessment contexts.
D) If clinicians use structured diagnostic interviews, the reliability of diagnosis is assured.

Question 25

The fact that DSM-IV-TR diagnoses can be based on a variety of assessment methods increases

A) the reliability of the diagnoses.
B) the number of diagnoses included in the manual.
C) the heterogeneity of any one diagnostic category.
D) all of the above

Question 26

In DSM-IV-TR,cocaine dependence is diagnosed on Axis

A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.

Question 27

In DSM-IV-TR,major depression is diagnosed on Axis

A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) V.

Question 28

In DSM-IV-TR,clients are diagnosed along __________ axes.

A) three
B) four
C) five
D) six

Question 29

DSM-IV-TR adopts a __________ approach to classifying psychopathology.

A) six-axis
B) dimensional
C) biological
D) categorical

Question 30

Changes incorporated in DSM-IV and maintained in DSM-IV-TR were based on __________ to a greater extent than changes incorporated in any previous edition.

A) standard psychiatric practice
B) empirical data
C) cognitive-behavioral theory
D) consensus of expert opinion

Question 31

Structured diagnostic interviews

A) increase diagnostic reliability over unstructured interviews.
B) do not yet exist, but are being developed for both Axis I and Axis II disorders.
C) yield equally reliable diagnoses for all DSM-IV-TR disorders.
D) more than one of the above

Question 32

The dimensional approach to the classification of psychopathology

A) assumes that abnormal behavior is qualitatively different from normal behavior.
B) was adopted by DSM-III-R, DSM-IV, and DSM-IV-TR.
C) is consistent with the idea that abnormal and normal behaviors differ in degree, not in kind.
D) none of the above

Question 33

In DSM-IV-TR,paranoid personality disorder is diagnosed on Axis

A) I.
B) II.
C) III.
D) IV.

Question 34

Which of the following is true of the categorical approach to diagnosis?

A) It doesn't accurately reflect the true nature of most diagnostic constructs.
B) It makes it more difficult for people to earn a diagnosis and obtain treatment.
C) It makes it less likely that clinicians will "fudge" when assigning a diagnosis.
D) It makes it less likely that treatment-seekers will be stigmatized.

Question 35

Jennifer is a college student seeing a psychologist in the university counseling center for test anxiety.The only other symptoms she reports are occasional verbal arguments with her boyfriend of 2 years.In the DSM-IV-TR diagnostic system,Jennifer's GAF would appear on Axis __________ as approximately __________.

A) I; 50
B) V; 85
C) IV; 95
D) V; 10

Question 36

Problems with one's occupation and housing would appear on Axis ___ of DSM-IV-TR.

A) II
B) III
C) IV
D) V

Question 37

For each Axis I and Axis II diagnosis,DSM-IV-TR includes information on all but which of the following?

A) age of onset
B) treatment of choice
C) prevalence
D) cultural considerations

Question 38

Which of the following would be an appropriate entry on Axis IV of the DSM-IV-TR?

A) marital difficulty, financial strain
B) 55
C) avoidant personality disorder
D) social anxiety disorder

Question 39

In DSM-IV-TR,Axis V is used to

A) indicate the presence of personality disorders or mental retardation.
B) indicate the presence of clinical disorders other than personality disorders and mental retardation.
C) list relevant medical conditions.
D) quantitatively estimate an individual's overall level of functioning.

Question 40

In DSM-IV-TR,Axis I is used to

A) indicate the presence of personality disorders or mental retardation.
B) indicate the presence of clinical disorders other than personality disorders and mental retardation.
C) list relevant medical conditions.
D) quantitatively estimate an individual's overall level of functioning.

Question 41

According to Dr.A.,specific phobias are the result of classical conditioning.According to Dr.B.,they result from the displacement of intrapsychic conflict onto an external object that can then be avoided.According to Dr.C.,they are the product of maladaptive,irrational beliefs about the feared object.Respectively,Drs.A.,B.,and C.endorse the __________ etiological models of psychopathology.

A) learning, biological, and psychodynamic
B) learning, humanistic, and cognitive
C) biological, psychodynamic, and cognitive
D) none of the above

Question 42

A psychiatric diagnosis is valid to the extent that it

A) informs us about the etiology of the disorder.
B) helps us predict the course of the disorder/prognosis.
C) helps us choose an appropriate treatment for the disorder.
D) All of the above suggest diagnostic validity.

Question 43

A good synonym for the term "diathesis" is __________.

A) stress
B) consequence
C) environment
D) vulnerability

Question 44

Describe the history of homosexuality as a mental illness.What does this case suggest about psychiatric diagnoses?

Question 45

Which of the following features has been most heavily criticized regarding DSM-IV-TR's coverage of diagnostic conditions?

A) over-inclusiveness
B) the exclusion of childhood developmental disorders
C) the placement of personality disorders on Axis II
D) the limited number of schizophrenia subtypes

Question 46

Identify three major purposes of psychiatric diagnosis.

Question 47

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the "subjective distress" definition of abnormal behavior?

Question 48

What is the function of each axis of DSM-IV-TR?

Question 49

What are the major elements of "mental disorder," as defined in the DSM-IV-TR?

Question 50

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the "statistical infrequency or violation of social norms" definition of abnormal behavior?

Question 51

According to the DSM-IV-TR,ALL BUT WHICH of the following should be addressed in a cultural formulation of a person's problem?

A) How strong is the person's cultural identity?
B) How does the person's culture explain the problem at hand?
C) How does the person's culture regard the proposed treatment?
D) All of the above should be included in a cultural formulation.

Question 52

Some individuals have suggested that there is gender bias in psychiatric diagnosis.According to the paper by Widiger and Spitzer described in your textbook,which of the following situations would necessarily demonstrate the existence of such bias?

A) if a disorder were found to be much more prevalent in one sex than in the other
B) if men and women presenting with the same cluster of symptoms were assigned different diagnosis
C) both of the above
D) neither of the above

Question 53

Compare and contrast the categorical and dimensional approaches to the classification of mental disorders.

Question 54

Which of the following is an accurate statement about diatheses and stresses,as conceptualized by the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology?

A) Diatheses are always biological, and stresses are always environmental.
B) Diatheses are always biological, and stresses are always psychological.
C) Diatheses are always biological or psychological, and stresses are always environmental.
D) Diatheses may be biological or psychological, and stresses may be biological, psychological, interpersonal, or environmental.

Question 55

What are the advantages and disadvantages of the "disability or dysfunction or impairment" definition of abnormal behavior?

Question 56

Dr.Siegfried believes that abnormal behavior,ranging from mood disorders to eating disorders to sleep disorders,is due to structural,functional,or chemical abnormalities in the central nervous system.We would say that he adheres to the _________ model of psychopathology.

A) developmental
B) cognitive
C) biological
D) learning

Question 57

According to the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology,

A) a vulnerability or predisposition (such as genetics) is necessary and sufficient to develop psychopathology.
B) a vulnerability or predisposition and some kind of stressor are both required to develop psychopathology.
C) possessing a diathesis for a disorder guarantees its eventual occurrence.
D) all human beings are born with the same likelihood of developing a particular disorder.

Question 58

Identify at least three ways that culture may impact diagnosis and/or treatment.

Question 59

Describe the diathesis-stress model of psychopathology.

Question 60

DSM-IV-TR includes approximately __________ possible diagnoses.

A) 50
B) 150
C) 400
D) 800