Deck 19: Gene Mutation and DNA Repair
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Deck 19: Gene Mutation and DNA Repair
1
A temporary change in the structure of a nitrogenous base is called ________.
A) depurination
B) a tautomeric shift
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
A) depurination
B) a tautomeric shift
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
B
2
Anticipation is associated with which of the following?
A) nonsense mutations
B) up-promoter mutations
C) intergenic suppressors
D) TRNE mutations
A) nonsense mutations
B) up-promoter mutations
C) intergenic suppressors
D) TRNE mutations
D
3
The complete loss of either a guanine or adenine from DNA is an example of ________.
A) depurination
B) tautomeric shifts
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
A) depurination
B) tautomeric shifts
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
A
4
The conversion of cytosine to uracil in DNA is an example of ________.
A) depurination
B) tautomeric shifts
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
A) depurination
B) tautomeric shifts
C) deamination
D) None of the answers are correct.
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5
Reverse mutations involve changing a wild-type allele to a mutant allele.
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6
The wild-type eye color of Drosophila is red.A single-base mutation occurs that produces a white eye color.Which of the following is correct regarding this mutation?
A) It is an example of a mutation that alters protein function.
B) Individuals with white eyes are called reversions.
C) It would be an example of a silent mutation.
D) All of the answers are correct.
A) It is an example of a mutation that alters protein function.
B) Individuals with white eyes are called reversions.
C) It would be an example of a silent mutation.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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7
A translocation that moves a gene from an area of euchromatin to heterochromatin would typically cause ________ in the expression of the gene.
A) a reduction
B) an increase
C) no change
A) a reduction
B) an increase
C) no change
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8
Mutations that change the configuration of a protein at a specific temperature are called ________ mutations.
A) neutral
B) beneficial
C) deleterious
D) conditional
A) neutral
B) beneficial
C) deleterious
D) conditional
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9
Which of the following is not an example of a spontaneous mutation?
A) DNA replication errors
B) tautomeric shifts
C) aberrant recombination
D) UV light
E) transposable elements
A) DNA replication errors
B) tautomeric shifts
C) aberrant recombination
D) UV light
E) transposable elements
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10
If a point mutation increases the number of offspring an organism can produce,it would be called a ________ mutation.
A) neutral
B) lethal
C) beneficial
D) conditional
E) deleterious
A) neutral
B) lethal
C) beneficial
D) conditional
E) deleterious
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11
Translocations and inversions may cause which of the following?
A) TRNE
B) anticipation
C) position effect
D) genome mutations
A) TRNE
B) anticipation
C) position effect
D) genome mutations
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12
Most trinucleotide repeat expansion repeats involve expansion of which of the following?
A) GAA
B) CAG
C) ATG
D) any codon containing three of the same bases
A) GAA
B) CAG
C) ATG
D) any codon containing three of the same bases
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13
The results of the replica plating experiments by the Lederbergs supported which of the following theories?
A) random mutation theory
B) physiological adaptation theory
C) both theories
D) neither theory
A) random mutation theory
B) physiological adaptation theory
C) both theories
D) neither theory
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14
The mutation frequency would be the same for all genes in a given culture.
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15
The Lederbergs developed the process of replica plating to test whether advantageous mutations arose in response to the selective agent or were naturally present in the population before selection.
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16
After screening a colony of bacteria for a given gene,you discover 100 mutant colonies out of 3 million total colonies.What is the mutation frequency for this gene in the population?
A) 1.0 x 10⁵
B) 1.0 x 10⁻⁵
C) 3.0 x 10⁵
D) 3.3 x 10⁻⁵
A) 1.0 x 10⁵
B) 1.0 x 10⁻⁵
C) 3.0 x 10⁵
D) 3.3 x 10⁻⁵
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17
Which of the following is correct regarding the rate of mutation?
A) Rates of mutation per cell generation typically range from 10−⁵ to 10−⁹.
B) Mutation rates are consistent across species.
C) Mutation rates are not influenced by environmental conditions.
D) Mutation rates are constant.
A) Rates of mutation per cell generation typically range from 10−⁵ to 10−⁹.
B) Mutation rates are consistent across species.
C) Mutation rates are not influenced by environmental conditions.
D) Mutation rates are constant.
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18
Which of the following are examples of suppressor mutations?
A) an intragenic mutation that restores protein structure
B) an intergenic mutation that increases the activity of a protein performing the same function as the mutated protein
C) an intergenic mutation that activates a transcription factor that dramatically upregulates expression of the mutant protein
D) All of the answers are possible suppressor mutations.
A) an intragenic mutation that restores protein structure
B) an intergenic mutation that increases the activity of a protein performing the same function as the mutated protein
C) an intergenic mutation that activates a transcription factor that dramatically upregulates expression of the mutant protein
D) All of the answers are possible suppressor mutations.
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19
In the following sequence of DNA,the italicized base has been mutated.What type of mutation is this?
5' - G A T C T C C G A A T T - 3' original strand
5' - G A T C T C C C A A T T - 3' mutated strand
A) transition
B) transversion
C) neither
5' - G A T C T C C G A A T T - 3' original strand
5' - G A T C T C C C A A T T - 3' mutated strand
A) transition
B) transversion
C) neither
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20
A heritable change in the genetic material is called a mutation.
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21
Which of the following is an example of a base analog?
A) EMS
B) nitrous acid
C) 5BU
D) nitrogen mustards
E) acridine dyes
A) EMS
B) nitrous acid
C) 5BU
D) nitrogen mustards
E) acridine dyes
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22
Which of the following integrate into the double-helix of DNA,interfering with DNA replication?
A) EMS
B) nitrous acid
C) 5BU
D) acridine dyes
A) EMS
B) nitrous acid
C) 5BU
D) acridine dyes
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23
Ethyl methanesulfonate (EMS)is an example of a deaminating agent.
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24
What process repairs damage from UV radiation?
A) homologous recombination repair
B) direct repair
C) base excision repair
D) mismatch repair
E) nucleotide excision repair
A) homologous recombination repair
B) direct repair
C) base excision repair
D) mismatch repair
E) nucleotide excision repair
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25
An individual that is a genetic mosaic would be the result of a germ cell mutation.
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26
If an organism has a mutation in a gene that causes it to be sterile,a mutation in a second gene that restores fertility is a suppressor mutation.
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27
How does position effect influence gene expression?
A) The movement of the genetic material on the chromosome by inversions or translocations may place a coding sequence near a new regulatory region, thus activating the expression of the gene.
B) The movement of the gene may place it into a region that is highly condensed.
C) The movement of a gene may remove it from its normal promoter, thus silencing the gene.
D) All of the answers are correct.
A) The movement of the genetic material on the chromosome by inversions or translocations may place a coding sequence near a new regulatory region, thus activating the expression of the gene.
B) The movement of the gene may place it into a region that is highly condensed.
C) The movement of a gene may remove it from its normal promoter, thus silencing the gene.
D) All of the answers are correct.
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28
The most common genotype in a population is called the mutant genotype.
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29
TNRE repeats frequently result in the addition of extra histidine amino acids to the protein.
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30
Homologous recombination repair requires the presence of a sister chromatid.
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31
Which DNA repair process identifies daughter strands by methylation?
A) homologous recombination repair
B) direct repair
C) base excision repair
D) mismatch repair
E) nucleotide excision repair
A) homologous recombination repair
B) direct repair
C) base excision repair
D) mismatch repair
E) nucleotide excision repair
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32
The Ames test may be used to determine if an agent is a mutagen.
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33
Which environmental agent shown can induce mutations?
A) UV radiation
B) x-rays
C) gamma rays
D) All of the answers are correct.
A) UV radiation
B) x-rays
C) gamma rays
D) All of the answers are correct.
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34
Breakpoints in chromosome can lead to mutant phenotypes when they occur in the middle of a gene.
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35
Somatic cells are those that give rise to sperm and egg cells.
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36
In the nucleotide excision repair system,which of the following proteins is responsible for recognizing a thymine dimer to be repaired?
A) UvrA/UvrB
B) UvrC
C) UvrD
D) None of the answers are correct.
A) UvrA/UvrB
B) UvrC
C) UvrD
D) None of the answers are correct.
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37
Which repair process can use an enzyme called photolyase?
A) homologous recombination repair
B) direct repair
C) base excision repair
D) mismatch repair
E) nucleotide excision repair
A) homologous recombination repair
B) direct repair
C) base excision repair
D) mismatch repair
E) nucleotide excision repair
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38
A mutation in a promoter region that causes the promoter sequence to more closely resemble the consensus sequence is called an up promoter mutation and decreases transcription.
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39
Silent mutations are possible due to the degenerate nature of the genetic code.
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40
Which process is used to replicate DNA that contains distortions due to unrepaired DNA damage?
A) Translesion synthesis
B) Homologous recombination repair
C) Nonhomologous end joining
D) Nucleotide excision repair
A) Translesion synthesis
B) Homologous recombination repair
C) Nonhomologous end joining
D) Nucleotide excision repair
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41
When guanine is oxidized into 8-oxoguanine,it will base pair with adenine during DNA replication,causing a transversion mutation.
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42
Which of the following are examples of spontaneous mutations?
A) depurination
B) deamination
C) tautomeric shifts
D) nitrogenous base oxidation
A) depurination
B) deamination
C) tautomeric shifts
D) nitrogenous base oxidation
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43
Mutagens change the structure of DNA,which may lead to mutations.
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44
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