Deck 18: Gastrointestinal Tract Infections

Question 1

Norovirus infections

A)are commonly associated with the consumption of shellfish.
B)are spread by the faecal-oral route.
C)require a low infective dose.
D)can be spread on contaminated fomites.
E)all of the above.

Answer 1

E

Question 2

If a patient has pseudomembranous colitis he probably has

A)recently travelled overseas.
B)received broad spectrum antibiotic therapy.
C)lived in a developing country.
D)consumed contaminated animal products.
E)extremely poor personal hygiene.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Giardia intestinalis

A)is motile because it has a flagellum.
B)forms cysts that are resistant to chlorine.
C)produces symptoms of persistent diarrhoea and nausea.
D)is treated with metronidazole.
E)all of the above.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

Which of the following is a gastrointestinal disease?

A)Ross River fever.
B)Rotavirus infection.
C)Yellow fever.
D)Scrub typhus.
E)Malaria.

Question 5

Which of the following organisms is the most common cause of travellers' diarrhoea?

A)Pneumocystis jiroveci.
B)Cryptosporidium parvum.
C)Cryptococcus neoformans.
D)E)Coli.
E)Hepatitis A virus.

Question 6

What is the most important aspect of patient management for most gastrointestinal infections?

A)Bed rest.
B)Administration of antitoxin.
C)Antimicrobial therapy.
D)Fluid and electrolyte replacement.
E)Use of anti-motility drugs.

Question 7

Amoebic dysentery

A)is caused by Cryptosporidium parvum.
B)causes ulceration over the whole of the intestinal tract.
C)is endemic in the northern parts of Australia.
D)remains localised in the intestine.
E)all of the above.

Question 8

Infection with Giardia intestinalis

A)only occurs in immunocompromised people.
B)is a serious disease known as amoebic dysentery.
C)is extremely rare in Australia.
D)is diagnosed by microscopic examination of stools.
E)all of the above.

Question 9

In rotavirus infections

A)infants are easily dehydrated.
B)the virus is very contagious.
C)there is a high fatality rate in infants.
D)only symptomatic treatment is possible.
E)all of the above.

Question 10

An outbreak of gastroenteritis among children in a daycare centre is most likely to be caused by

A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Clostridium difficile.
D)Cryptosporidium parvum.
E)Shigella spp.

Question 11

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)Most intestinal pathogens invade the intestine and spread to other parts of the body.
B)Only bacteria cause gastroenteritis.
C)Gastrointestinal infection always results in diarrhoea.
D)Acute diarrhoeal infections can be fatal due to fluid loss.
E)Gastrointestinal infections are always associated with contaminated food.

Question 12

Clostridium perfringens

A)can cause gangrene.
B)forms resistant endospores.
C)is commonly found in the environment .
D)can cause diarrhoea.
E)all of the above.

Question 13

Diarrhoeal disease is more common in children attending daycare centres than those at home because

A)of close contact between children.
B)of oral exploration of objects by young children.
C)staff can spread disease between children.
D)some organisms that affect children have a low infectious dose.
E)all of the above.

Question 14

Salmonellosis

A)is rare in developed countries.
B)is a food intoxication.
C)is often associated with poultry meat or foods containing eggs.
D)should always be treated with antimicrobial drugs.
E)all of the above.

Question 15

Which of the following organisms is responsible for the most cases of bacterial diarrhoea in Australia?

A)Helicobacter pylori.
B)Campylobacter jejuni.
C)Salmonella sp.
D)E)coli.
E)Staphylococcus aureus.

Question 16

Antimicrobial therapy with a broad spectrum drug in hospital may result in a patient developing

A)pseudomembranous colitis.
B)diarrhoea due to Clostridium difficile.
C)overgrowth of Candida albicans.
D)any of the above.
E)none of the above.

Question 17

Cholera is a disease which

A)only occurs in humans.
B)is often transmitted via contaminated drinking water.
C)can be prevented by vaccination.
D)is rare in Australia.
E)all of the above.

Question 18

Haemolytic uraemic syndrome is caused by

A)a strain of E.coli that produces a Shiga toxin.
B)Salmonella found in raw chicken meat.
C)a streptococcal infection of the kidneys.
D)exotoxins secreted by Staphylococcus aureus.
E)intestinal bacteria that spread to the urinary tract.

Question 19

Inflammatory diarrhoea

A)usually involves the small intestine.
B)is a profuse diarrhoea without blood and white cells.
C)is often accompanied by fever.
D)does not result from the action of toxins.
E)all of the above.

Question 20

Shigella are organisms which

A)invade the intestinal lining.
B)do not have an endotoxin.
C)have been completely eradicated by vaccination.
D)cause amoebic dysentery.
E)rarely cause infections in children.

Question 21

The bacterium that plays a major role in the development of gastric ulcers is

A)Salmonella enteritidis.
B)Helicobacter pylori.
C)Salmonella typhi.
D)Vibrio parahaemolyticus.
E)all of the above.

Question 22

Which of the following bacteria cause gastrointestinal symptoms that are due to an exotoxin?

A)Staphylococcus aureus.
B)Clostridium perfringens.
C)Vibrio cholerae.
D)E)coli.
E)All of the above.

Question 23

Which of the following is TRUE concerning hydatid disease?

A)The definitive host is the dog.
B)Humans are infected by ingestion of eggs of Echinococcus granulosus.
C)Tissue cysts can contain thousands of worms.
D)Larvae of the worm penetrate through the intestine into the bloodstream.
E)All of the above.

Question 24

Which of the following food poisoning organisms produces almost immediate gastrointestinal symptoms (within hours)?

A)Salmonella typhimurium.
B)Enterococcus faecalis.
C)Staphylococcus aureus.
D)Shigella dysenteriae.
E)All of the above.

Question 25

Which of the following does NOT cause hepatitis in humans?

A)Cytomegalovirus.
B)Epstein-Barr virus.
C)Rubeola virus.
D)Hepatitis B virus.
E)Hepatitis C virus.

Question 26

Hepatitis A

A)has a short incubation period of around two days.
B)is most severe in young children.
C)virus is closely related to all the other hepatitis viruses.
D)does not generally cause chronic infection.
E)cannot be prevented by vaccination.

Question 27

Cryptosporidium parvum gastroenteritis

A)is not notifiable in Australia because of low incidence rates.
B)is uncommon because it has a high infective dose.
C)typically results in cyst formation in the liver and spleen.
D)can occur in outbreaks due to contaminated swimming pools.
E)all of the above.

Question 28

Hookworm infestation

A)can cause iron deficiency and anaemia.
B)is always symptomatic,characterised by a bloody diarrhoea.
C)remains localised in the intestine.
D)occurs when cysts are ingested in contaminated drinking water.
E)all of the above.

Question 29

A nurse suffers a needlestick injury with a needle used on a patient with confirmed hepatitis B.If she has not previously had any hepatitis B immunisation the most important immediate treatment she should receive is

A)hepatitis B vaccine.
B)hepatitis B immunoglobulin.
C)alpha interferon.
D)HBsAg.
E)aciclovir

Question 30

Probiotics are

A)antimicrobial drugs used before antibiotics.
B)drugs with broad spectrum activity against all microorganism types.
C)nucleic acid probes used to identify microorganisms that are difficult to grow.
D)untested treatments for any medical condition.
E)formulations of microorganisms that may provide a health benefit.

Question 31

Typhoid fever

A)is usually spread via respiratory secretions.
B)can be caused by any species of Salmonella.
C)is a localised infection of the intestinal tract.
D)is caused by organisms which can multiply within phagocytes.
E)none of the above.

Question 32

What is the most common risk factor for hepatitis C virus infection in developed countries?

A)Blood transfusion.
B)Intravenous drug abuse.
C)Unprotected sex.
D)Perinatal transmission.
E)Mosquito bite.

Question 33

An effective treatment for chronic Clostridium difficile diarrhoea is

A)a faecal microbiota transplant.
B)colonic cleansing.
C)a high-fibre diet.
D)antiviral therapy.
E)corticosteroid therapy.

Question 34

Infection with the pinworm Enterobius vermicularis

A)is rare in Australia.
B)is characterised by anal itching.
C)is acquired by penetration of the skin by larvae.
D)can lead to lung disease.
E)all of the above.

Question 35

Listeria monocytogenes

A)is an infection only of humans.
B)is most commonly spread directly from person to person.
C)is endemic in the northern parts of Australia.
D)can cause serious foetal infections.
E)all of the above.

Question 36

The giant roundworm that can lay around 200 000 eggs a day in the intestine of an infected person is

A)Enterobius vermicularis.
B)Ascaris lumbricoides.
C)Strongyloides stercoralis.
D)Ancylostoma duodenale.
E)Echinococcus granulosus.

Question 37

Which of the following statements is FALSE?

A)Typhoid fever is caused by Salmonella typhi.
B)Salmonella can remain in the gall bladder or liver after the patient has recovered.
C)All patients who have typhoid become chronic carriers.
D)A vaccine is available for typhoid.
E)Typhoid fever is transmitted by the faecal-oral route.

Question 38

Which of the hepatitis viruses,for which there is no vaccine,may cause a chronic infection?

A)Hepatitis A.
B)Hepatitis C.
C)Hepatitis D.
D)Hepatitis E.
E)None of the above.

Question 39

Hepatitis B can be transmitted by

A)male homosexual contact.
B)exposure to infected patient blood.
C)at birth,from infected mother to baby.
D)intravenous drug use.
E)all of the above.

Question 40

Which of the following could be transmitted by needlestick injury?

A)Hepatitis B.
B)Hepatitis C.
C)Hepatitis D.
D)All of the above.
E)None of the above.

Question 41

Which of the following can only cause infection when there is coexisting hepatitis virus infection?

A)Hepatitis A.
B)Hepatitis B.
C)Hepatitis C.
D)Hepatitis D.
E)Hepatitis E.