Deck 18: Applications of Immune Responses

Question 1

Toxoids are used in vaccines against

A)Haemophilus influenza type b.
B)diphtheria.
C)herpes simplex type I.
D)polio.
E)diphtheria AND herpes simplex type I.

Answer 1

diphtheria.

Question 2

The term vaccination

A)is a general term that would include the process of variolation.
B)was coined by Jenner.
C)was coined by Pasteur.
D)comes from the Latin for cow,vacca.
E)is a general term that would include the process of variolation,was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow,vacca.

Answer 2

is a general term that would include the process of variolation,was coined by Pasteur AND comes from the Latin for cow,vacca.

Question 3

Which antibodies cross the placenta and protect the fetus?

A)IgA
B)IgG
C)IgM
D)IgD

Answer 3

IgG

Question 4

Substances that are contained in vaccines to help induce a better immune response are called

A)primary substances.
B)secondary substances.
C)adjuvants.
D)adjuncts.

Question 5

The last case of naturally contracted smallpox occurred in

A)1900.
B)1950.
C)1965.
D)1977.
E)1989.

Question 6

Inactivated immunizing agents are prepared by treatment with

A)alcohol.
B)phenol.
C)formalin.
D)histamine.

Question 7

The practice of deliberately stimulating the immune system is called

A)acquired immunity.
B)memory immunity.
C)vaccination.
D)hypersensitivity.

Question 8

Almost all of the antibodies found in a newborn are

A)the result of infection.
B)self-made.
C)IgM.
D)the result of passive immunity.

Question 9

Whole agent vaccines may contain

A)viruses.
B)bacteria.
C)toxins.
D)polysaccharides.
E)viruses AND bacteria.

Question 10

Attenuated agents are

A)dead viruses.
B)toxins.
C)weakened but replicating microbes.
D)parts of an organism.

Question 11

The procedure developed by the Chinese to protect against smallpox was called

A)Oriental poxination.
B)humoral immunity.
C)variolation.
D)naturally acquired immunity.

Question 12

The virus originally used for vaccination against smallpox is named

A)vaccinia.
B)cowpox.
C)rubella.
D)herpes.

Question 13

For which of the following childhood diseases is a subunit vaccine recommended?

A)Polio
B)Measles
C)Hepatitis B
D)Pertussis

Question 14

The most common adjuvant is

A)ethanol.
B)formalin.
C)alum.
D)aluminum.
E)alum AND aluminum.

Question 15

Herd immunity

A)only occurs in a population in which all individuals are immune.
B)occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune.
C)only provides protection to those that are already immune.
D)is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.
E)occurs in a population in which a large percentage of the population is immune AND is responsible for dramatic increases in childhood diseases.

Question 16

The Salk vaccine

A)contains live attenuated virus.
B)contains inactivated virus.
C)contains a portion of the polio virus.
D)occasionally causes disease.

Question 17

The Salk vaccine

A)protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection.
B)protects only against gastrointestinal infection.
C)is a subunit vaccine.
D)protects only against nervous system infection.
E)protects against nervous system and gastrointestinal infection AND is a subunit vaccine.

Question 18

Attenuated agents

A)may induce immunity after a single dose.
B)may cause disease in immunocompromised individuals.
C)multiply in the body.
D)may revert or mutate to disease-causing strains.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 19

The scientist who made variolation safer and more effective was

A)Pasteur.
B)Jenner.
C)Metchnikoff.
D)Fleming.

Question 20

Variolation is a procedure once used to protect against

A)measles.
B)bubonic plague.
C)rabies.
D)smallpox.

Question 21

Precipitation reactions depend on

A)the antigen having one epitope.
B)the antibody having one epitope.
C)the antigen having two or more epitopes.
D)the antigen having no epitopes.

Question 22

Immunodiffusion tests

A)allow detection of specific antigens.
B)are a simple method that produces visible results in the zone of optimal proportion.
C)allow quantitation of antigen concentrations.
D)All of the choices are correct.

Question 23

Agglutination tests can be used to diagnose diseases caused by

A)bacteria.
B)hormones.
C)fungi.
D)viruses.
E)All of the choices are correct.

Question 24

Blood for transfusion is frequently tested for HIV by using the

A)complement fixation test.
B)agglutination test.
C)ELISA method.
D)Ouchterlony test.

Question 25

The change from negative serum,without antibodies specific to an infecting agent,to positive serum,containing antibodies against that infecting agent,is called

A)ELISA.
B)complement fixation.
C)seroconversion.
D)serum reversion.

Question 26

Immunological tests may determine the presence of

A)only antibody.
B)only antigen.
C)antigen or antibody.
D)neither antibody nor antigen.

Question 27

A poorly understood,yet promising type of vaccine that causes the host to produce microbial antigens for a short time involves the use of

A)subunits.
B)DNA.
C)alum.
D)toxoids.
E)glycoproteins.

Question 28

Injection of a single antigen usually results in production of

A)antibody to a single epitope.
B)an antibody that recognizes several epitopes.
C)additional antigen.
D)a number of antibodies each recognizing a different epitope.

Question 29

The serology test that may show the antigen-antibody complex as yellow-green under the microscope while using an ultraviolet light is known as the

A)Western blot.
B)fluorescent antibody test.
C)ELISA test.
D)agglutination test.

Question 30

Precipitation occurs when

A)antigen combines with antigen.
B)antibody combines with antibody.
C)antibody combines with antigen.
D)antibody combines with antigen at optimal proportions.

Question 31

Which type of vaccine has been used in place of inactivated whole cell vaccine?

A)Acellular subunit
B)Whole cell attenuated
C)Adjuvant
D)Toxin

Question 32

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in

A)direct fluorescent antibody tests.
B)complement fixation test.
C)radioimmunoassay.
D)indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
E)indirect ELISA,Western blot,AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

Question 33

Serological tests are most often conducted in

A)test tubes.
B)flasks.
C)microtiter plates.
D)graduated cylinders.

Question 34

Monoclonal antibodies obtained from a hybridoma provide

A)a large amount of an antibody that is specific for a particular epitope.
B)a single antibody that recognizes many epitopes.
C)many epitopes that recognize a specific antibody.
D)a large number of B cells.

Question 35

If a positive reaction is last observed at a dilution of 1:256,the titer is

A)128.
B)1/512.
C)1/256.
D)256.

Question 36

Monoclonal antibodies

A)are usually of different classes.
B)usually recognize several epitopes.
C)have the same variable regions.
D)are always IgE.

Question 37

The vaccine that is stable to heat,has little unwanted material and causes minimal side effects is called a(n)

A)inactive vaccine.
B)active vaccine.
C)toxoid.
D)peptide.

Question 38

DNA vaccines work by

A)stimulating production of antibodies against DNA.
B)stimulating interferon production.
C)inactivating the host DNA.
D)having the cell use the introduced DNA to make the microbial protein antigen.

Question 39

Precipitation reactions carried out in agarose are called

A)hemagglutination tests.
B)complement fixation tests.
C)immunodiffusion tests.
D)ELISA tests.

Question 40

An immune complex is defined as

A)antigen combined with antigen.
B)antigen combined with antibody.
C)antibody combined with antibody.
D)complement combined with LPS.

Question 41

The effectiveness of DNA vaccines stems from the effective production of antibodies against the naked DNA molecule.

Question 42

Since many childhood diseases such as mumps and measles are rare now within the United States,why is it still important for children to be immunized against them?

A)If we lose herd immunity by removing mandatory vaccination,our population will become susceptible to these illnesses again in a short period of time.
B)There is always the likelihood that an individual from another country could import one of these illnesses into the United States,sparking an outbreak of new infections,if we aren't all properly vaccinated.
C)By keeping the population vaccinated,we keep incidence rates of these illnesses very low.This helps to protect people that cannot be vaccinated (very young children,pregnant women,immunocompromised individuals,the elderly).
D)Many of these diseases are HIGHLY contagious,and commonly through respiratory droplet (airborne)transmission.This makes an outbreak within a susceptible population very possible.Keeping the population resistant through mandatory vaccination prevents this possibility.
E)All of the options are correct.

Question 43

Which of the following tests allows the separation of cells according to their sizes,densities,and surface markers tagged by specific fluorescent antibodies?

A)Western blot
B)ELISA
C)Fluorescence-activated cell sorter
D)FA test on a microscope slide

Question 44

Why is a false positive more significant in HIV testing of patients than in screening donated blood for transfusions?

A)It isn't-both are equally dangerous/significant.False-positives in PEOPLE can lead to psychological trauma,but false-positives in BLOOD could lead to the useful blood being disposed.
B)A false-positive in a PERSON is easily retestable.This makes it more significant,because we would simply quickly retest the person to verify their actual HIV status.
C)A false-positive in BLOOD is easily retestable.This makes it less significant,because we would simply quickly retest the blood to verify its actual HIV status.
D)This statement is backwards-false-positives in blood testing are more significant.If the false-positive rate is high and we don't realize it,we're more likely to dispose useful blood.This could lead to acute shortages of blood for patients who need transfusions.

Question 45

An adjuvant has been developed from lipid

Question 46

Active immunity develops only after a natural infection and not after vaccination.

Question 47

Agglutination reactions utilize particles rather than molecules.

Question 48

Inactivated vaccines typically require booster shots.

Question 49

A monoclonal antibody is typically IgE and recognizes several epitopes.

Question 50

Alum is an adjuvant.

Question 51

Attenuated agents often give rise to a long-lasting immunity.

Question 52

DNA vaccines are dangerous due to the possibility of the DNA causing reversion in the inactivated pathogen.

Question 53

Would antibodies produced by a patient in response to infection be monoclonal,or polyclonal?

A)Since the infection is from only a single agent/microbe,the antibodies would be monoclonal.
B)Since a single pathogen has multiple antigens,and each antigen has multiple epitopes,the responding antibodies to a whole pathogen would be polyclonal.
C)Since the pathogen would most likely mutate slightly during the infection (producing different epitopes),the responding antibodies would be polyclonal.
D)Since the pathogen would acquire and modify self-antigens during the infectious process,the antibodies produced during the response would be polyclonal.

Question 54

What would be a primary advantage of passive immunity with diseases such as tetanus or botulism?

A)Time.You can quickly neutralize the toxin with a passive administration of antibodies to save the patient's life when none is available for them to make their own active immune response.
B)Cost.It's far cheaper to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine.
C)Safety of delivery.It's far safer to administer a dose of antibodies harvested from the serum of an actively immunized animal or human than it is to administer a vaccine.
D)Handling of treatment.It's difficult to keep vaccines stored properly to keep their potency,especially in Third World countries without adequate "cold chains" for transport into jungles and deserts.It's much easier to keep a batch of antibodies stable,even in extremes of heat and humidity.

Question 55

What would be a primary advantage of using an attenuated agent rather than just an antigen from that agent for a vaccine?

A)This is actually a disadvantage-it's much more dangerous to use an attenuated agent over a subunit (single antigen)vaccine due to the possibility of reversion of the microbe to a pathogenic state.
B)An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the antibody production (humoral response)of the adaptive immune system.This provides the best and strongest long-term protection.
C)An attenuated agent strongly stimulates ONLY the cytotoxic T cell (CTL,cell-mediated)side of the adaptive immune system.This provides the best and strongest long-term protection.
D)An attenuated agent strongly stimulates both the humoral (antibody)AND cell-mediated (T cell)portions of the adaptive immune response,giving the best comprehensive long-term protection available.

Question 56

The risk of serious illness from measles is 500 times greater than from vaccination against the disease.

Question 57

Anti-human-gamma-globulin antiserum is often used in

A)direct fluorescent antibody tests.
B)indirect ELISA.
C)Western blot.
D)indirect fluorescent antibody tests.
E)indirect ELISA,Western blot AND indirect fluorescent antibody tests.

Question 58

Recombinant vaccines and inactivated vaccines typically require several shots to be effective.

Question 59

Which of the following methods allows monitoring of the progressive destruction of CD4 T cells during an HIV infection by tagging the cells with specific antibodies to CD4 surface proteins and measuring their concentrations in serum?

A)Western blot
B)ELISA
C)FACS
D)Latex beads agglutination
E)FA test on a microscope slide