Deck 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
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Deck 8: Transcription, Translation, and Bioinformatics
1
The average half-life for mRNA in E. coli is:
A) 10-30 seconds
B) 30-60 seconds
C) 1-3 minutes
D) 3-5 minutes
E) 5-10 minutes
A) 10-30 seconds
B) 30-60 seconds
C) 1-3 minutes
D) 3-5 minutes
E) 5-10 minutes
C
2
Transcription occurs in the __________ and translation occurs in the __________ of a eukaryotic cell.
A) nucleoid; cytoplasm
B) cytoplasm; cytoplasm
C) nucleus; cytoplasm
D) nucleus; nucleus
E) nucleoid; nucleoid
A) nucleoid; cytoplasm
B) cytoplasm; cytoplasm
C) nucleus; cytoplasm
D) nucleus; nucleus
E) nucleoid; nucleoid
C
3
Which of the following can cause transcription to end?
A) stem and loop
B) sigma
C) stop codon
D) rho
E) more than one of the above
A) stem and loop
B) sigma
C) stop codon
D) rho
E) more than one of the above
E
4
The semisynthetic derivative of rifamycin is __________.
A) erythromycin
B) chloramphenicol
C) rifampin
D) streptomycin
E) tetracycline
A) erythromycin
B) chloramphenicol
C) rifampin
D) streptomycin
E) tetracycline
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5
The "housekeeping" sigma factor in E. coli is:
A) sigma-28
B) sigma-38
C) sigma-54
D) sigma-70
E) sigma-97
A) sigma-28
B) sigma-38
C) sigma-54
D) sigma-70
E) sigma-97
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6
The unusual bases found in tRNA are poor substrates for __________.
A) proteases
B) polymerases
C) ribosomes
D) ribozymes
E) RNases
A) proteases
B) polymerases
C) ribosomes
D) ribozymes
E) RNases
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7
Which of the following is NOT true of initiation of transcription?
A) The RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds.
B) GTP hydrolysis catalyzes bubble formation.
C) The promoter unwinds.
D) The first rNTP is usually a purine.
E) Position +1 marks the start of the gene.
A) The RNA polymerase holoenzyme binds.
B) GTP hydrolysis catalyzes bubble formation.
C) The promoter unwinds.
D) The first rNTP is usually a purine.
E) Position +1 marks the start of the gene.
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8
Which drug intercalates into DNA and inhibits transcription in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes?
A) actinomycin D
B) chloramphenicol
C) rifampin
D) streptomycin
E) tetracycline
A) actinomycin D
B) chloramphenicol
C) rifampin
D) streptomycin
E) tetracycline
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9
An enzyme complex called RNA polymerase, also known as __________-dependent __________ polymerase, carries out the process of transcription.
A) RNA; DNA
B) transcription; DNA
C) transcription; RNA
D) DNA; RNA
E) translation; RNA
A) RNA; DNA
B) transcription; DNA
C) transcription; RNA
D) DNA; RNA
E) translation; RNA
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10
What do codons and anticodons have in common?
A) They are part of tRNA.
B) They are sequences of DNA 3 nucleotides long.
C) They are identical RNA sequences.
D) They are complementary RNA sequences.
E) None of the above.
A) They are part of tRNA.
B) They are sequences of DNA 3 nucleotides long.
C) They are identical RNA sequences.
D) They are complementary RNA sequences.
E) None of the above.
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11
Molecules of sRNA do not encode proteins but are used to __________ the translation of specific mRNAs into proteins.
A) start
B) regulate
C) stop
D) speed up
E) slow down
A) start
B) regulate
C) stop
D) speed up
E) slow down
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12
Most tRNA molecules begin with a 5' __________ and all end with a 3' __________, to which the amino acids attach.
A) phosphate; hydroxyl
B) C; GGA
C) G; CCA
D) A; TTA
E) C; AAT
A) phosphate; hydroxyl
B) C; GGA
C) G; CCA
D) A; TTA
E) C; AAT
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13
Which drug interferes with transcription in prokaryotes?
A) chloramphenicol
B) erythromycin
C) rifamycin B
D) streptomycin
E) tetracycline
A) chloramphenicol
B) erythromycin
C) rifamycin B
D) streptomycin
E) tetracycline
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14
During transcription of the __________ genes, normal, unmodified bases are incorporated, but some of these are modified later by specific enzymes.
A) tRNA
B) rRNA
C) mRNA
D) sRNA
E) catalytic RNA
A) tRNA
B) rRNA
C) mRNA
D) sRNA
E) catalytic RNA
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15
Which of the following is NOT part of initiation of transcription?
A) the RNA polymerase holoenzyme
B) binding of RNA polymerase to the beginning of the gene
C) melting of the helix
D) synthesis of a primer
E) base pairing of the first nucleotide of the RNA
A) the RNA polymerase holoenzyme
B) binding of RNA polymerase to the beginning of the gene
C) melting of the helix
D) synthesis of a primer
E) base pairing of the first nucleotide of the RNA
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16
Without __________, the core RNA polymerase binds and releases DNA at random.
A) sigma factor
B) initiation factor
C) Shine-Dalgarno sequence
D) peptidyltransferase
E) release factor
A) sigma factor
B) initiation factor
C) Shine-Dalgarno sequence
D) peptidyltransferase
E) release factor
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17
__________ is normally read as a stop codon but encodes tryptophan in vertebrate mitochondria.
A) AUG
B) UCA
C) UAC
D) UGA
E) AUC
A) AUG
B) UCA
C) UAC
D) UGA
E) AUC
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18
Rho functions in:
A) protein degradation
B) protein secretion
C) initiation of translation
D) termination of transcription
E) release of ribosomes from the mRNA
A) protein degradation
B) protein secretion
C) initiation of translation
D) termination of transcription
E) release of ribosomes from the mRNA
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19
__________ RNA polymerase plus sigma factor together are called __________.
A) Transcription; translation
B) Translation; transcription
C) Ribosome; rRNA
D) Holoenzyme; core
E) Core; holoenzyme
A) Transcription; translation
B) Translation; transcription
C) Ribosome; rRNA
D) Holoenzyme; core
E) Core; holoenzyme
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20
A __________ sequence consists of the most likely base (or bases) at each position.
A) consensus
B) promoter
C) Shine-Dalgarno
D) regulatory
E) termination
A) consensus
B) promoter
C) Shine-Dalgarno
D) regulatory
E) termination
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21
A __________ RNA is a single RNA molecule that contains information from several contiguous genes.
A) cistronic
B) transfer
C) polycistronic
D) ribosomal
E) messenger
A) cistronic
B) transfer
C) polycistronic
D) ribosomal
E) messenger
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22
The typical E. coli cell has approximately how many ribosomes?
A) 100
B) 300
C) 1,000
D) 18,000
E) 100,000
A) 100
B) 300
C) 1,000
D) 18,000
E) 100,000
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23
Different __________ can bind simultaneously to the start of each cistron within a polycistronic mRNA.
A) genes
B) proteins
C) polymerases
D) ribosomes
E) RNases
A) genes
B) proteins
C) polymerases
D) ribosomes
E) RNases
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24
Genes encoding the form of antibiotic resistance involving an efflux transport system are commonly encoded on __________.
A) chromosomes
B) plasmids
C) bacteriophage
D) transposons
E) sigma
A) chromosomes
B) plasmids
C) bacteriophage
D) transposons
E) sigma
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25
What does it mean to say that the genetic code is degenerate?
A) There is more than one kind of amino acid in proteins.
B) More than one rRNA can bind to the ribosome at the same time.
C) A codon is composed of more than one nucleotide.
D) More than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
E) All products of translation contain a certain minimum number of mistakes, called mutations.
A) There is more than one kind of amino acid in proteins.
B) More than one rRNA can bind to the ribosome at the same time.
C) A codon is composed of more than one nucleotide.
D) More than one codon can specify the same amino acid.
E) All products of translation contain a certain minimum number of mistakes, called mutations.
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26
Several different antibiotics have been isolated from.
A) E. coli
B) Streptomyces
C) Mycoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Streptococcus
A) E. coli
B) Streptomyces
C) Mycoplasma
D) Mycobacterium
E) Streptococcus
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27
Which form of RNA has the task of unsticking stuck ribosomes?
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) sRNA
D) tmRNA
E) TRNA
A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) sRNA
D) tmRNA
E) TRNA
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28
Post-translational modification may involve:
A) adenylylation
B) phosphorylation
C) acetylation
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
A) adenylylation
B) phosphorylation
C) acetylation
D) all of the above
E) none of the above
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29
What is the significance of the Shine-Dalgarno sequence?
A) It is the site where RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription.
B) It is the site where ribosomes bind to begin translation.
C) It is the site where DNA polymerase binds to begin chromosome replication.
D) It is the site where the tRNA binds to the mRNA in translation.
E) It is the site where DNA polymerase begins synthesis of the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
A) It is the site where RNA polymerase binds to begin transcription.
B) It is the site where ribosomes bind to begin translation.
C) It is the site where DNA polymerase binds to begin chromosome replication.
D) It is the site where the tRNA binds to the mRNA in translation.
E) It is the site where DNA polymerase begins synthesis of the Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand.
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30
Which RNA species is a component of the 30S subunit of the ribosome?
A) 5S RNA
B) 16S RNA
C) 23S RNA
D) tRNA
E) mRNA
A) 5S RNA
B) 16S RNA
C) 23S RNA
D) tRNA
E) mRNA
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31
__________ serves as a molecular clock that measures the approximate time since two species diverged.
A) tRNA
B) mRNA
C) rRNA
D) sRNA
E) tmRNA
A) tRNA
B) mRNA
C) rRNA
D) sRNA
E) tmRNA
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32
After __________, each polypeptide must be properly folded and placed at the correct cellular or extracellular location.
A) replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) degradation
E) conjugation
A) replication
B) transcription
C) translation
D) degradation
E) conjugation
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33
Peptide bond formation effectively transfers the peptide from the tRNA in the __________ to tRNA in the __________.
A) P-site; A-site
B) A-site; P-site
C) P-site; E-site
D) E-site; A-site
E) E-site; P-site
A) P-site; A-site
B) A-site; P-site
C) P-site; E-site
D) E-site; A-site
E) E-site; P-site
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34
What is the importance of the stop codon UAG?
A) It tells the DNA polymerase to stop replicating the chromosome.
B) It tells the RNA polymerase to stop transcribing the chromosome.
C) It tells the tRNA to stop transcribing the DNA.
D) It tells the ribosome to stop translating the mRNA.
E) It signals the end of the operon.
A) It tells the DNA polymerase to stop replicating the chromosome.
B) It tells the RNA polymerase to stop transcribing the chromosome.
C) It tells the tRNA to stop transcribing the DNA.
D) It tells the ribosome to stop translating the mRNA.
E) It signals the end of the operon.
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35
The energy source utilized by the elongation factors EF-G and EF-Tu is:
A) proton motive force
B) ATP hydrolysis
C) GTP hydrolysis
D) phosphoenolpyruvate hydrolysis
E) none is required
A) proton motive force
B) ATP hydrolysis
C) GTP hydrolysis
D) phosphoenolpyruvate hydrolysis
E) none is required
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36
The charging of tRNAs is carried out by a set of enzymes called __________ transferases.
A) ribozymes
B) aminoacyl-tRNA
C) peptidyl
D) proteases
E) polymerases
A) ribozymes
B) aminoacyl-tRNA
C) peptidyl
D) proteases
E) polymerases
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37
Which of the following are required for the termination of translation?
A) sRNAs
B) degrons
C) tolC proteins
D) release factors
E) ubiquitins
A) sRNAs
B) degrons
C) tolC proteins
D) release factors
E) ubiquitins
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38
Peptidyl transferase is present in the __________ ribosomal subunit.
A) 30S
B) 50S
C) 5S
D) 16S
E) 80S
A) 30S
B) 50S
C) 5S
D) 16S
E) 80S
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39
The __________ of transcription and translation helps microbes rapidly adjust gene expression to changes in their environment.
A) coupling
B) separation
C) processes
D) slowing
E) pausing
A) coupling
B) separation
C) processes
D) slowing
E) pausing
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40
Which of the following is a ribozyme?
A) Clp protease
B) release factor
C) trigger factor
D) peptidyl transferase
E) aminoacyl-tRNA transferase
A) Clp protease
B) release factor
C) trigger factor
D) peptidyl transferase
E) aminoacyl-tRNA transferase
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41
Define "half-life" in terms of mRNA. Biologically, why is it important that the half-life of mRNA be the shortest of the RNAs? What chemically leads to a longer half-life for tRNAs and rRNAs?
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42
Which of the following is an example of a heat shock protein?
A) Clp protease
B) tolC
C) SecB
D) Gro EL
E) Rho
A) Clp protease
B) tolC
C) SecB
D) Gro EL
E) Rho
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43
The term __________ is used to describe movement of a protein out of the cytoplasm.
A) "export"
B) "import"
C) "translocation"
D) "transport"
E) "secretion"
A) "export"
B) "import"
C) "translocation"
D) "transport"
E) "secretion"
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44
Name two antibiotics that affect transcription and explain their mode of action.
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45
How do sigma factors regulate major physiological responses?
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46
__________ controls protein turnover by closely regulating the degradation of specific proteins.
A) Ubiquitination
B) Half-life
C) Amino acid sequence
D) Tertiary structure
E) Protease
A) Ubiquitination
B) Half-life
C) Amino acid sequence
D) Tertiary structure
E) Protease
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47
Gram-negative microbes are surrounded by two layers of __________, between which lies a periplasmic space.
A) peptidoglycan
B) membrane
C) lipopolysaccharide
D) cellulose
E) chitin
A) peptidoglycan
B) membrane
C) lipopolysaccharide
D) cellulose
E) chitin
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48
Describe the experiment utilizing an E. coli cell lysate that was used to figure out the genetic code.
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49
What is a chimeric RNA pol and how was it used to determine the mechanism of antibiotic resistance in RNA pol?
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50
Similar genes within the same organism that have different functions are referred to as:
A) homologs
B) orthologs
C) paralogs
D) homogenous
E) synonymous
A) homologs
B) orthologs
C) paralogs
D) homogenous
E) synonymous
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51
What are the functions of the different types of RNA molecules?
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52
How does the mRNA referred to as the sense strand compare to the template and nontemplate DNA strand?
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53
Which of the following uses the proton motive force as its energy source?
A) signal recognition particle
B) SecYEG translocon
C) SecA ATPase
D) twin arginine translocase
E) type I protein secretion
A) signal recognition particle
B) SecYEG translocon
C) SecA ATPase
D) twin arginine translocase
E) type I protein secretion
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54
Explain the process of transcription initiation.
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55
Signal sequences are found:
A) in the 30S ribosomal subunit
B) in the 50S ribosomal subunit
C) at the N-terminal end of a protein
D) at the C-terminal end of a mRNA
E) upstream of the promoter
A) in the 30S ribosomal subunit
B) in the 50S ribosomal subunit
C) at the N-terminal end of a protein
D) at the C-terminal end of a mRNA
E) upstream of the promoter
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56
In eukaryotes, protein degradation occurs through organelles called __________.
A) proteases
B) lysosomes
C) RNases
D) proteasomes
E) vacuoles
A) proteases
B) lysosomes
C) RNases
D) proteasomes
E) vacuoles
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57
The general secretion complex known as the SecYEG translocon is found in the:
A) nucleus
B) inner membrane
C) cell wall
D) periplasmic space
E) outer membrane
A) nucleus
B) inner membrane
C) cell wall
D) periplasmic space
E) outer membrane
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58
Explain the processes of Rho-dependent and Rho-independent termination of transcription.
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59
Where is the Shine-Dalgarno sequence located and what is it responsible for?
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60
Which of the following terms refers to a discipline involving comparison of genes of different species?
A) annotation
B) bioinformatics
C) ORFs
D) sequence homology
E) computer analysis
A) annotation
B) bioinformatics
C) ORFs
D) sequence homology
E) computer analysis
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61
Since ribosomes do not translate to the end of the mRNA, what causes translation to end?
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62
What does it mean to say that transcription and translation are coupled and what are some of the potential problems with this?
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63
Every mRNA has three possible reading frames. How does the ribosome find the correct reading frame?
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64
Why is protein degradation necessary to maintain cellular health?
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65
Name two antibiotics that affect translation and explain their mode of action.
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66
If an mRNA has been damaged so that it no longer has a stop codon, what happens to the ribosome and how is this problem solved?
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67
Eukaryotes and the archaea contain proteasomes. Compare and contrast these proteasomes in terms of structure and function.
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68
How are folded and unfolded proteins moved from the cytoplasm to the periplasm?
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69
Where is f-met used as the N-terminal amino acid? What does that mean for the human immune response?
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70
What specifically about eukaryotes makes bioinformatic analysis more complicated?
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