Deck 13: Donor Screening and Component Preparation

Question 1

Packed RBCs must have a final hematocrit of less than or equal to:

A) 85%.
B) 38%.
C) 80%.
D) 70%.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Leukoreduced packed RBCs must have an absolute white blood cell count of less than and contain at least what percent of original RBC mass?

A) 5  10⁸/85
B) 5  10⁶/85
C) 5  10⁸/80
D) 5  10⁶/80

Answer 2

B

Question 3

All of the following statements are characteristic of a penetrating cryoprotective agent except:

A) it consists of generally small molecules.
B) osmotic force prevents migration of water outside of the cell, preventing dehydration.
C) large molecules form a shell around the cell, preventing loss of water and dehydration.
D) none of the above.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

A patient who recently stopped taking clopidogrel (Plavix) needs to donate platelets. How long must the patient defer donation after completing the medication?

A) 24 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 7 days
D) 14 days

Question 5

What dose of RhIG would be appropriate for a D-negative woman who has had a miscarriage at 11 weeks gestation?

A) 300 µg
B) 120 µg
C) 50 µg
D) All of the above

Question 6

If a prospective blood donor has participated in a pheresis donation (platelets, plasma, granulocytes), at least how much time must pass before they can donate whole blood?

A) 56 days
B) 48 hours
C) 24 hours
D) 4 weeks

Question 7

In acute normovolemic hemodilution:

A) shed blood is normally reinfused to the patient within 24 hours of collection.
B) blood units are reinfused in the reverse order of collection.
C) blood units are reinfused in the order of collection.
D) the last blood collection should occur no sooner than 72 hours before scheduled surgery.

Question 8

A unit of red blood cells has an expiration date of 11/15/12. A patient currently on a fludarabine regimen requires irradiated packed red blood cells. The unit is irradiated for this patient on 11/02/12. What is the correct expiration date post-irradiation?

A) 11/15/12
B) 11/30/12
C) 11/28/12
D) 11/02/12

Question 9

Which of the following is the only pheresis procedure that requires administration of a growth factor to the donor?

A) plasmapheresis
B) plateletpheresis
C) leukopheresis
D) erythrocytapheresis

Question 10

What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential allogeneic donor?

A) 11 g/dL
B) 12 g/dL
C) 12.5 g/dL
D) 14 g/dL

Question 11

A patient has a baseline platelet count of 30,000/µL. Upon receiving a platelet pool of 4 random platelets, what would you expect the post-transfusion platelet count to be?

A) 35,000/µL
B) 50,000/µL
C) 80,000/µL
D) 100,000/µL

Question 12

A whole blood donation contains a volume of 350 mL. Which of the following is true regarding this unit?

A) Packed red blood cells cannot be made from this unit.
B) FFP cannot be made from this unit.
C) Cryoprecipitate can be made from this unit.
D) Platelets cannot be made from this unit.

Question 13

What is the minimal pH required for platelets?

A) 6.0
B) 6.2
C) 7.0
D) 7.2

Question 14

What is the deferral period for a donor who has received a live attenuated vaccine for rubella?

A) 2 weeks
B) 4 weeks
C) no deferral period
D) 8 weeks

Question 15

Ringer's lactate is characterized as a:

A) colloid.
B) crystalloid.
C) antithrombotic.
D) albumin derivative.

Question 16

A woman received a transfusion of packed RBCs while delivering her baby. Six months later she wanted to donate a unit of blood back to the American Red Cross. If the woman meets all other criteria for donation, is she allowed to donate at this time?

A) Yes, she can donate at this time.
B) No, she needs to wait 3 more months.
C) No, she needs to wait 6 more months.
D) No, she should be on permanent deferral.

Question 17

A whole blood donor who has taken Tegison should be:

A) accepted.
B) deferred for 3 months.
C) permanently deferred.
D) deferred for 6 months.

Question 18

What is the minimum hemoglobin level for a potential autologous donor?

A) 11 g/dL
B) 12 g/dL
C) 12.5 g/dL
D) 14 g/dL

Question 19

Nucleic acid amplification testing (NAT) is performed for which of the following?

A) HIV, WNV, HCV
B) HIV, HCV, HBV
C) HIV, HBV, WNV
D) HIV, HTLV I,II, HCV

Question 20

Cryoprecipitate is indicated for all of the following disorders except:

A) hypofibrinogenemia.
B) hemophilia A.
C) Von Willebrand's disease.
D) hemophilia B.

Question 21

The following blood donors regularly give blood. Which donor may donate on September 11th?

A) A 40-year-old woman who last donated on July 25th
B) A 28-year-old man who had plateletpheresis on August 24th
C) A 52-year-old man who made an autologous donation on September 9th
D) A 23-year-old woman who made a direct donation for her aunt on August 14th

Question 22

A world traveler came in to do a directed donation for his sister when he found out she needed surgery for her hip. After spending 5 weeks in Europe, he traveled extensively throughout Africa. How should his case be handled?

A) Because he is donating to his sister, and she signed consent, he may donate for her.
B) He meets all the criteria for being a directed donor, so would be able to donate without any problem.
C) He would not be able to donate, because all directed donors must meet the same criteria as allogeneic donors.
D) He could donate, but only with the consent of the medical direct and physician.

Question 23

What is the expiration time for platelet concentrates that have been pooled?

A) 24 hours
B) 6 hours
C) 4 hours
D) 48 hours

Question 24

An autologous unit should be donated what time period prior to the patients surgery/need?

A) 72 hours
B) 48 hours
C) 1 week
D) 24 hours

Question 25

Methods of preparation of platelet concentrates from single units of whole blood must produce a product that yields a minimum of:

A) 5.5  10¹¹ platelets per unit in 50% of units tested.
B) 5.5  10¹¹ platelets per unit in 75% of units tested.
C) 5.5  10¹⁰ platelets per unit in 75% of units tested.
D) none of the above.

Question 26

Normally what percentage of 35-day-old red blood cells should be circulating 24 hours after transfusion?

A) 100%
B) 50%
C) 65%
D) 70%

Question 27

The new international bar code system that most blood banks are converting to is:

A) Codabar.
B) ISBT.
C) Codabar 128.
D) Eian 12.

Question 28

Which of the following statements explains why bacterial contamination of blood is rarely a problem?

A) Regulated procedures for arm preparation prevent most bacteria contamination from occurring during collection.
B) Citrate in the anticoagulant is not conducive to bacterial growth.
C) The cold storage of blood is not conducive to bacterial growth.
D) All of the above

Question 29

A blood donor with a history of hepatitis B should be excluded:

A) only if they are jaundiced.
B) only if the disease has been active for the last 5 years.
C) permanently.
D) only if liver function tests are abnormal.

Question 30

Which organism is responsible for transmitting Chagas disease?

A) Treponema pallidum
B) Trypanosoma cruzi
C) Yersinia enterocolitica
D) Plasmodium vivax

Question 31

Which of the following are approved preservative solutions for blood storage at 1°C to 6°C for 21 days?

A) ACD
B) CPD
C) CP2D
D) All of the above

Question 32

Which of the following products does not necessarily need to be ABO-compatible in order to be transfused?

A) Cryoprecipitate
B) FFP
C) Granulocytes
D) Deglycerolized RBCs

Question 33

How many times can a person meeting all the optimal criteria donate an apheresis unit of platelets per year?

A) 56 times
B) 112 times
C) 24 times
D) 48 times