Deck 3: Assessing and Diagnosing Abnormality

Question 1

Simon developed two forms of an intelligence test. In the second form, he changed the wording and order of the questions. He administered both forms to the same group of participants two weeks apart. While scoring the tests, Simon realized that the participants' answers to the different forms of the test were dissimilar. In this case, the tests are said to have:

A) high test-retest reliability.
B) low test-retest reliability.
C) high alternate form reliability.
D) low alternate form reliability.

Answer 1

low alternate form reliability.

Question 2

The extent to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure and not something else altogether is representative of _____ validity.

A) predictive
B) concurrent
C) construct
D) face

Answer 2

construct

Question 3

Jason was taking a test to measure his general level of anxiety. When he glanced over the test, the questions seemed as though they were related to his problem. In this scenario, the test most likely had _____ validity.

A) predictive
B) concurrent
C) content
D) face

Answer 3

face

Question 4

A test is considered to have predictive validity when it:

A) measures what it intends to measure and not something else.
B) seems on its face to measure what it intends to measure.
C) yields results similar to those of other established measures.
D) reliably represents how a person will think, feel, or behave in the future.

Question 5

Which term refers to the accuracy of a test in assessing what it is supposed to measure?

A) Reliability
B) Validity
C) Constructability
D) Generalizability

Question 6

Which of the following is a label for a set of symptoms that often occur together?

A) Marker
B) Typology
C) Diagnosis
D) Assessment

Question 7

Which of the following is the best method of improving the validity and reliability of psychological tests?

A) Conducting at least three trials before using them for research
B) Standardizing their administration and interpretation
C) Limiting their use to patients with severe disorders
D) Having them reviewed by professionals in the field of psychopathology

Question 8

Wallace took an anxiety test when he was in the sixth grade. He took it in the first week of a particular month and then again in the last week of the same month. On both occasions, his test scores were practically the same. In this scenario, the anxiety test Wallace took was most likely high on _____ reliability.

A) internal consistency
B) test-retest
C) inter-rater
D) alternate form

Question 9

_____ reliability refers to how consistent the results of a test are over time.

A) Alternate form
B) Internal consistency
C) Inter-rater
D) Test-retest

Question 10

_____ refers to the similarity in people's answers among different parts of the same test.

A) Content validity
B) Internal consistency reliability
C) External validity
D) Alternate form reliability

Question 11

Mark takes a test to measure his general level of anxiety. After taking the test, Mark realizes that the test contains questions only on the physical symptoms of anxiety and no questions on the cognitive symptoms, which are equally important aspects of the phenomenon of anxiety. In this case, the test mostly lacks _____.

A) alternate-form reliability
B) content validity
C) test-retest reliability
D) predictive validity

Question 12

A researcher should expect low test-retest reliability for an anxiety questionnaire that measures:

A) general tendencies.
B) enduring characteristics.
C) current symptoms.
D) broad tendencies.

Question 13

_____ validity is the extent to which a test yields the same results as other, established measures of the same phenomena.

A) Construct
B) Concurrent
C) Content
D) Predictive

Question 14

If a test assesses all important aspects of a phenomenon, the test is said to have _____ validity.

A) content
B) construct
C) concurrent
D) contextual

Question 15

The process of gathering information about an individual's symptoms and the possible causes of these symptoms is referred to as _____.

A) assessment
B) diagnosis
C) treatment
D) study

Question 16

A test that is consistent in measuring what it is supposed to measure is considered to have _____.

A) reliability
B) generalizability
C) validity
D) constructability

Question 17

Tina's parents are concerned because she seems to have trouble writing. She often writes her numbers backwards and misspells words. The school suggests that they seek psychological counseling for Tina, especially since the problem occurred after the family's car accident. Why might the family need a psychologist?

A) Psychologists can assess cognitive deficits such as learning disabilities.
B) A psychologist would be more sympathetic to the parents' concerns.
C) A psychologist could consult after ruling out biological causes for the problem.
D) Psychologists are concerned with the emotional well-being of individuals.

Question 18

When different individuals score a test and come to similar conclusions after evaluating the same people, the test is said to have _____ reliability.

A) high inter-rater
B) low inter-judge
C) low internal
D) high test-retest

Question 19

Current guidelines for diagnosing mental disorders use _____ to make diagnoses.

A) ranges of scores
B) subjective systems
C) thresholds
D) continuum models

Question 20

An initial interview in a clinical setting may include a _____ exam, to assess the client's general functioning.

A) mental illness
B) medical health
C) mental status
D) medical status

Question 21

If direct observation or role-playing is not possible, clinicians may require individuals to:

A) self-discipline.
B) self-regulate.
C) self-diagnose.
D) self-monitor.

Question 22

Which of the following statements is true about the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?

A) While it was being developed, a large group of possible inventory items was given only to people suffering from various psychological problems.
B) The inventory items on the original MMPI cluster into 18 scales that measure different types of psychological characteristics or problems.
C) Additional scales have been added to the MMPI-2 to assess vulnerability to eating disorders, substance abuse, and poor functioning at work.
D) The test uses one validity scale to determine whether a person responds honestly or distorts her or his answers in a way that might invalidate the test.

Question 23

In a mental status exam, when a clinician takes note of how coherently and quickly a client speaks, the clinician is primarily assessing the client's _____.

A) mood and affect
B) appearance and behavior
C) thought processes
D) orientation to place, time, and person

Question 24

Cynthia wants to become a police officer. Applicants for the police academy must take a battery of tests before admission. Cynthia took a test that had sentences describing moral and social attitudes, behaviors, psychological states, and physical conditions. She was also instructed to respond to each sentence with either "true," "false," or "can't say." Cynthia most likely took the _____.

A) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)
C) Bender-Gestalt Test
D) Thematic Appreciation Test (TAT)

Question 25

Which of the following is used to assess people's typical ways of thinking, feeling, and behaving?

A) An intelligence test
B) A symptom questionnaire
C) A projective test
D) A personality inventory

Question 26

Rudolph, a client, was asked a set of questions by his clinician in his initial interview. The questions were highly standardized and objective. Rudolph was surprised because his friends had told him to expect general and open-ended questions such as, "Tell me about yourself." The clinician most likely conducted a _____.

A) behavioral observation
B) projective test
C) survey
D) structured interview

Question 27

Which of the following terms is used to describe a method of comparing an individual's score on an intelligence test with the performance of individuals of the same age group?

A) Emotional Quotient (EQ)
B) Intelligence Quotient (IQ)
C) Intelligence inventory
D) Intellectual supremacy

Question 28

In a mental status exam, the clinician evaluates a client's _____ by observing how well the client speaks and looking for indications of memory or attention difficulties.

A) mood and affect
B) cognitive functioning
C) appearance and behavior
D) orientation to place, time, and person

Question 29

During 28-year-old Sophia's second visit to the psychologist, the clinician gave her a symptom questionnaire that assessed her symptoms of loss of interest, low motivation, and changes in her appetite. Sophia most likely received the _____.

A) Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS)
B) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)
C) Insomnia Severity Index
D) Bender-Gestalt Test

Question 30

Which of the following is a criticism leveled against the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?

A) The norms for the original MMPI were not representative of people from a wide range of ethnic and racial backgrounds, age groups, and social classes.
B) The concurrent validity and the test-retest reliability of the MMPI have been found to be low.
C) The MMPI has limited application as a general screening device for detecting people who are functioning very poorly psychologically.
D) The MMPI cannot be translated into different languages to meet the needs of different cultural groups.

Question 31

Which of the following statements is true about the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)?

A) It assesses whether the respondent qualifies for a diagnosis of depression.
B) It has 21 items, each of which describes four levels of a given symptom of depression.
C) It clearly differentiates between the clinical syndrome of depression and the general distress that may be related to an anxiety disorder.
D) It has cutoff scores that help indicate only severe levels of depressive symptoms.

Question 32

On Lee's first visit to a psychologist's office, the psychologist asks him a series of questions about his personal and family history. These questions:

A) are part of his initial interview.
B) serve a single purpose of putting the client at ease.
C) are just a formality with no real diagnostic value.
D) reflect the client's ability to diagnose his own condition.

Question 33

_____ are used to measure abilities such as abstract reasoning, verbal fluency, and spatial memory.

A) Intelligence tests
B) Personality tests
C) Verbal tests
D) Projective tests

Question 34

Which kind of interview is standardized and uses concrete criteria to score the person's answers?

A) Initial
B) Unguided
C) Structured
D) Definitive

Question 35

Which of the following is a quick way for a clinician to determine a client's symptoms?

A) Symptom questionnaire
B) Personality inventory
C) Luria-Nebraska Test
D) Computerized tomography (CT) scan

Question 36

Critics of the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) argue that it:

A) is incapable of responding to the new manifestations of depressive symptoms.
B) is too easy to administer, and increases the likelihood that clients will provide false responses.
C) does not clearly differentiate between depressive symptoms and general distress related to other disorders.
D) does not prove to be adequate assessment for the complicated clinical syndrome of depression.

Question 37

Sarah's parents were concerned because she seemed "slow" for her age. Sarah had a complete physical and mental examination. In addition, she took a battery of tests. The results of one test revealed that Sarah suffered from mild mental retardation. Most likely, this test was a(n) _____.

A) electroencephalogram
B) personality test
C) projective test
D) intelligence test

Question 38

An important advantage of direct behavioral observation is that:

A) it has high interrater reliability.
B) it does not rely on self-reports and self-interpretations of behaviors.
C) an individual rater can easily capture all the details of an interpersonal interaction.
D) the behavior of the individual is not forced and occurs naturally.

Question 39

Clinicians will often use _____ to assess deficits in individuals' skills or ways of handling situations.

A) cognitive tests
B) behavioral observation
C) symptom inventories
D) personality inventories

Question 40

During an initial interview, Diane, a clinician, notes that her client tends to laugh excessively at his own jokes. He has disheveled hair and soiled clothes. Which types of information has Diane noted about her client?

A) Mood and affect; orientation to place, time, and person
B) Orientation to place, time, and person; thought processes
C) Thought processes; intellectual functioning
D) Mood and affect; appearance and behavior

Question 41

Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI):

A) can scan the brain only at specific angles.
B) should not be used repeatedly on the same individual.
C) does not require exposing the patient to any radiation.
D) provides less-detailed images of the brain compared to other technologies.

Question 42

Which of the following is true about positron-emission tomography (PET) and single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)?

A) The same tracer substance is used in both SPECT and PET.
B) SPECT is less accurate than PET.
C) PET is less expensive than SPECT.
D) The procedures of SPECT are significantly different from those of PET.

Question 43

Psychologist may use paper-and-pencil _____ tests to detect specific cognitive deficits.

A) neurobiological
B) neurological
C) neurophysiological
D) neuropsychological

Question 44

An enhancement of X-ray procedures that construct three-dimensional computerized images of the major structures of the brain is called a _____ scan.

A) computerized tomography (CT)
B) positron-emission tomography (PET)
C) single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
D) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

Question 45

The average performance score on an intelligence quotient (IQ) test is _____.

A) 50
B) 120
C) 100
D) 80

Question 46

When electroencephalogram (EEG) patterns over brief periods are recorded in response to specific stimuli, these EEG patterns are referred to as:

A) evoked potentials.
B) electrodermal responses.
C) event associations.
D) galvanic skin responses.

Question 47

Margaret received an intelligence quotient (IQ) score of 100 on her intelligence test. How does her performance most likely compare with the average performance of other individuals in her age group?

A) It is much lower.
B) It is much higher.
C) It is similar.
D) It is higher by 100 points.

Question 48

Which of the following brain-imaging techniques is considered the most effective?

A) Computerized tomography (CT)
B) Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)
C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
D) Positron-emission tomography (PET)

Question 49

_____ tests are used to detect changes in the brain and nervous system that reflect emotional and psychological changes. These tests are alternative methods to magnetic resonance imaging (MRIs), computerized tomography (CT), positron-emission tomography (PET), and single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT).

A) Psychophysiological
B) Neuropsychological
C) Personality
D) Projective

Question 50

The Halstead-Reitan Test and the Luria-Nebraska Test are _____ tests.

A) projective
B) intelligence
C) neuropsychological
D) aptitude

Question 51

Which of the following statements regarding intelligence tests is NOT correct?

A) Intelligence tests are controversial, and there is little consensus as to what intelligence means.
B) The most widely used intelligence tests do not assess talents and skills such as artistic and musical ability.
C) Different cultures within the United States and other countries emphasize other forms of reasoning that may not be assessed on intelligence tests.
D) Several "culture-fair" tests exist, but they are so expensive to administer that psychologists rarely use them.

Question 52

_____ are used to identify brain abnormalities such as tumors and strokes.

A) Computerized brain monitors
B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) machines
C) Electroencephalograms (EEGs)
D) Photon-emission tomography (PET) techniques

Question 53

Intelligence tests are biased in favor of:

A) middle-class educated African American women.
B) upper-class educated Latino males.
C) middle- and upper-class educated Asian Americans.
D) middle- and upper-class educated European Americans.

Question 54

A psychologist would find the Bender-Gestalt Test most useful for:

A) differentiating between mental retardation and autism.
B) determining different personality types.
C) identifying people with brain damage.
D) measuring emotional and intellectual abilities.

Question 55

In positron-emission tomography (PET) scans, a radioactive isotope, fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG), emits subatomic particles called _____ as it decays.

A) leptons
B) positrons
C) fragments
D) nucleons

Question 56

The Bender-Gestalt Test assesses individual's sensorimotor skills by having them reproduce a set of nine drawings. A client with brain damage who takes the test would most likely:

A) reproduce most drawings as is.
B) remember the finer aspects of the drawings.
C) change or rotate parts of the drawings.
D) be able to correctly reproduce all nine drawings.

Question 57

Which of the following can be used to show differences in activity in specific areas of the brain?

A) Positron-emission tomography (PET)
B) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
C) Electroencephalogram (EEG)
D) Computerized tomography (CT)

Question 58

A(n) _____ measures electrical activity along the scalp produced by the firing of specific neurons in the brain, and it is often used to detect seizure activity.

A) computerized tomography (CT) scan
B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan
C) electroencephalogram (EEG)
D) positron-emission tomography (PET) scan

Question 59

Which of the following is a limitation of computerized tomography?

A) It does not accurately reveal tumors and injuries.
B) It only shows two-dimensional images.
C) It exposes patients to X-rays, which can be harmful.
D) It provides an image of the brain's activity rather than its structure.

Question 60

June will soon undergo a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. Which of the following will most likely occur during the scan?

A) Narrow X-ray beams will pass through June's head, and the amount of radiation absorbed by each beam will be measured.
B) A radioactive isotope will be injected into June's brain in order to show the different levels of activity in specific areas of her brain.
C) Several images will be presented to June, which she will have to reconstruct with a pencil and paper.
D) A magnetic field will realign the hydrogen atoms in June's brain, allowing the computer to read the signals and construct images of her brain.

Question 61

Clinicians from _____ perspectives value projective test as tools for assessing the underlying conflicts and concerns of individuals.

A) psychodynamic
B) cognitive
C) existential
D) humanistic

Question 62

In an electroencephalogram (EEG), electrodermal response refers to:

A) respiration.
B) pupil dilation.
C) sweat gland activity.
D) blood vessel constriction.

Question 63

European Americans often view the body and mind as:

A) separate entities.
B) integrated experiences.
C) connected only in spiritual matters.
D) requiring little maintenance to sustain good health.

Question 64

Which of the following is NOT true of child psychopathology?

A) Parents' perceptions of their children's well-being are rarely influenced by their own symptoms of psychopathology and their expectations for their children.
B) Clinicians and researchers have experienced problems with children's self-reports and often rely on adults to provide the information.
C) Parents are considered a reliable source of information because they spend more time with their children than any other adults do.
D) A child's psychopathology can be connected to parental behaviors.

Question 65

One of the first classification systems for psychological symptoms was developed by _____.

A) Plato
B) Aristotle
C) Socrates
D) Hippocrates

Question 66

Which of the following statements about child psychopathology is incorrect?

A) Cultural norms impact a child's behavior and parental expectations.
B) Teachers' assessments of children are always similar to the assessments of other adults, including parents and trained clinicians.
C) Guidance counselors and other school personnel are often the first to recognize a problem in a child and initiate an intervention.
D) Discrepancies in assessments of child behavior may be due to the fact that children function differently in different settings.

Question 67

Proponents of projective tests argue that they:

A) are useful in determining cognitive deficits.
B) allow people to see themselves as others do.
C) prompt unbiased responses to stimuli.
D) are useful in uncovering unconscious motives.

Question 68

The classification system most widely used in the United States for diagnosing psychological disorders is the _____.

A) Schedules for Clinical Assessment in Neuropsychiatry
B) Psychodynamic Diagnostic Manual
C) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)
D) International Classification of Disease (ICD)

Question 69

A set of syndromes and the rules for determining whether an individual's symptoms are part of one of these syndromes constitute a(n) _____.

A) diagnostic criteria
B) assessment array
C) prognostic indicator
D) classification system

Question 70

Which of the following is NOT true about language during an assessment?

A) Overdiagnosis may occur when the assessor interprets the client's description of symptoms as indicating more pathology than is really present.
B) Underdiagnosis may occur when the client cannot articulate complex emotions or strange perceptual experiences in the assessor's language.
C) Seldom do interpreters misunderstand and mistranslate a clinician's questions and the client's answers.
D) As different people from the same country can speak different dialects of a language or may have different means of expressing feelings and attitudes, mistranslation can occur.

Question 71

Projective tests:

A) are valid and reliable.
B) tend to be free from biases.
C) have been adapted for different cultures.
D) rely on subjective interpretations by clinicians.

Question 72

Which of the following was a problem with the earlier editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?

A) The text was cumbersome and clinicians had difficulty using the classification.
B) The theoretical assumptions of the criteria had no empirical support.
C) The criteria were impressionistic, and also influenced by humanistic theory.
D) The descriptions of the disorders were abstract and theoretically based.

Question 73

The set of symptoms of a diagnosis that tend to occur together is called a(n) _____.

A) category
B) syndrome
C) assessment
D) prognosis

Question 74

The first edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) was published in _____.

A) 1952
B) 1956
C) 1964
D) 1966

Question 75

The _____ consists of a series of pictures shown to individuals who are then asked to say what they think is being depicted in the pictures.

A) Rorschach Inkblot Test
B) Thematic Apperception Test
C) Draw-a-Person Test
D) Halstead-Reitan Test

Question 76

_____ tests are based on the assumption that people will interpret ambiguous stimuli in line with their current concerns and feelings, their relationships with others, and their conflicts or desires.

A) Projective
B) Intelligence
C) Objective
D) Personality

Question 77

A clinician who is assessing a child in elementary school might request information from all of the following people EXCEPT the:

A) child's teacher.
B) child's neighbor.
C) child's parents.
D) child.

Question 78

Which of the following statements is true about the Rorschach Inkblot Test?

A) It was developed by Sigmund Freud.
B) It consists of a series of 15 pictures.
C) Clinicians are interested in the physiological responses of subjects to stimuli.
D) Clinicians are interested in the content and style of subjects' responses.

Question 79

Tina's parents made an appointment for her to see a mental health professional. During the initial interview, she refused to answer the interview questions and claimed that she did not have to cooperate if she did not want to. Tina is exhibiting _____.

A) bias
B) disturbance
C) resistance
D) distraction

Question 80

In the United States, which of the followings groups is overdiagnosed as suffering from schizophrenia?

A) European Americans
B) Asian Americas
C) Native Americans
D) African Americans