Deck 24: The Immune System

Question 1

Which of the following is an immediate effect of histamine release?

A) dilation of local blood vessels
B) blocking of a response to ragweed pollen
C) decrease in heart rate
D) increase in blood pressure

Answer 1

A

Question 2

Natural killer cells

A) are phagocytes that attack and kill pathogenic microorganisms.
B) attack virus-infected cells by releasing chemicals that lead to cell death.
C) tag pathogenic microorganisms with antibodies.
D) "eat" microorganisms that have been tagged with antibodies.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Which of the following diseases cannot currently be prevented by vaccination?

A) AIDS
B) polio
C) measles
D) tetanus

Answer 3

A

Question 4

One kind of vaccine consists of

A) T cells.
B) B cells.
C) a harmless variant strain of a disease-causing microbe.
D) antibiotics.

Question 5

The transfer of antibodies in breast milk to an infant is an example of ________ immunity.

A) nonspecific
B) passive
C) humoral
D) active

Question 6

The human lymphatic system consists of all of the following structures except the

A) thymus.
B) tonsils.
C) spleen.
D) pancreas.

Question 7

Which of the following helps activate our innate immune system?

A) active immunity
B) inflammation
C) passive immunity

Question 8

Which of the following are found in the interstitial fluid and consume any bacteria and virus-infected cells they encounter?

A) red blood cells
B) leukocytes
C) macrophages
D) interferons

Question 9

When you cut yourself, the damaged cells immediately release chemical alarm signals, such as

A) interferon.
B) complement.
C) histamine.
D) antihistamine.

Question 10

Some complement proteins

A) induce antibody formation by phagocytic cells.
B) help trigger the inflammatory response.
C) are released by natural killer cells to attack cancer and virus-infected cells.
D) replace T cells in the cell-mediated response.

Question 11

Which of the following cell types is responsible for the humoral immune response?

A) B cells
B) neutrophils
C) natural killer cells
D) macrophages

Question 12

A molecule that can elicit an adaptive immune response is called a(n)

A) complement.
B) interferon.
C) antibody.
D) antigen.

Question 13

Virus-infected cells produce ________, proteins that help neighboring cells fight further viral infections.

A) lysozymes
B) interferons
C) histamines
D) interleukin-2

Question 14

The main function of the inflammatory response is to

A) initiate the production of antibodies.
B) remove contaminating microorganisms and initiate repair of damaged tissues.
C) initiate T-cell-mediated immune responses.
D) initiate the production of killer cells.

Question 15

Antibodies are

A) amino acids.
B) lipids.
C) carbohydrates.
D) proteins.

Question 16

Upon which of the following is passive immunity dependent?

A) a person's own immune system producing antibodies
B) antibodies made by another organism
C) antibody-producing cells from another organism
D) antigens from a person's own body

Question 17

The two main functions of the lymphatic system are

A) coagulating blood and fighting infections.
B) producing hormones that regulate the immune system and coagulating blood.
C) producing hormones that regulate the immune system and fighting infections.
D) returning tissue fluid to the circulatory system and fighting infections.

Question 18

Which of the following statements about the humoral immune response is true?

A) The humoral immune response defends against bacteria and viruses by activating T cells.
B) The humoral immune response defends primarily against bacteria and viruses present in body fluids.
C) The humoral immune response plays a major role in protecting the body from cancerous cells.
D) The humoral immune response is the result of macrophages producing antibodies.

Question 19

A researcher who detects a higher-than-normal amount of interferon in a laboratory rat would correctly conclude that

A) the rat has, or recently had, a viral infection.
B) cancerous cells are present in the rat.
C) the rat's diet is deficient in calcium.
D) monocytes are differentiating into macrophages in the rat's bloodstream.

Question 20

The body's innate defenses against infection include

A) several specific antibodies.
B) barriers such as dead skin cells and mucus.
C) increased production of certain hormones and changes in microcirculation.
D) memory cells.

Question 21

________ can destroy infected cells.

A) Macrophages
B) Mast cells
C) B cells
D) Cytotoxic T cells

Question 22

Which of the following types of cells does HIV preferentially infect?

A) cytotoxic T cells
B) natural killer cells
C) helper T cells
D) memory cells

Question 23

A primary immune response is the immune response elicited by the

A) primary antigen of a disease-causing microorganism.
B) primary antibodies of a disease-causing microorganism.
C) first exposure of lymphocytes to a particular antigen.
D) first exposure of memory cells to a particular antigen.

Question 24

Which of the following cell types is responsible for the cell-mediated immune response?

A) T cells
B) B cells
C) leukocytes
D) red blood cells

Question 25

Antibody molecules may function by causing the

A) destruction of complement proteins.
B) agglutination of viruses or bacteria.
C) destruction of B and T cells.
D) crystallization of antigenic particles.

Question 26

The adaptive immune system is capable of mounting specific responses to particular microorganisms because

A) lymphocytes are able to change their antigen specificity as required to fight infection.
B) stem cells determine which type of B and T cells to make.
C) the body contains an enormous diversity of lymphocytes, each with the ability to respond to a different antigen.
D) stem cells make different antigen receptors depending on the invading microorganism.

Question 27

After binding to an infected cell, the cytotoxic T cell

A) releases histamine.
B) becomes a phagocytic cell.
C) neutralizes the infecting bacteria or viruses.
D) releases a protein called perforin.

Question 28

While hiking, you must push aside thick branches that are near your face. One of them rips the skin on your arm and you begin to bleed from the cut. Which of the following plays an important role in initially protecting you from infection?

A) nonspecific antibodies
B) barriers such as dead skin cells and mucus because they are part of the innate immune system
C) increased production of certain hormones and changes in microcirculation
D) memory cells because they are part of the adaptive immune system

Question 29

What type of cell helps to stimulate B cells to produce antibodies?

A) mast cell
B) cytotoxic T cell
C) helper T cell
D) macrophage

Question 30

Which of the following statements about HIV is false?

A) The genome of HIV consists of RNA.
B) HIV attacks mast cells.
C) HIV replicates inside helper T cells.
D) Some drugs have proven effective in combating the spread of HIV from mothers to their children.

Question 31

________ rely completely on innate immunity.

A) Giraffes
B) Dogs
C) Humans
D) Beetles

Question 32

When a B cell first interacts with its particular antigen, the B cell

A) dies after destroying the antigen.
B) engulfs the antigen and digests it.
C) differentiates and develops into a clone of antibody-producing effector cells.
D) alters the chemical configuration of the antigen.

Question 33

Clonal selection

A) determines the pool of mature leukocytes that will be stimulated by macrophages.
B) requires the activation of natural killer cells.
C) describes the proliferation of B and T lymphocytes after they have been activated by an antigen.
D) requires the presence and activation of complement.

Question 34

Which of the following distinguishes the secondary immune response from the primary immune response?

A) The primary response is specific; the secondary one is not.
B) The secondary response is faster and stronger.
C) The primary response involves B cells; the secondary one involves T cells.
D) The secondary response allows different antigens to be recognized faster.

Question 35

Complement proteins can do all of the following except

A) enhance phagocytosis by innate immune cells by attaching to cell invaders.
B) help trigger the inflammatory response.
C) attack cancer and virus-infected cells after they are released by natural killer cells.
D) act as chemical signals to recruit more immune cells to the site of infection.

Question 36

Which of the following statements about AIDS is true?

A) The AIDS vaccine can prevent the spread of HIV.
B) There is now a treatment for AIDS that is simple and effective.
C) Using condoms during sex prevents the spread of the virus that causes AIDS.
D) AIDS patients live no longer than 2 to 3 years.

Question 37

The basic function of activated T cells is to battle

A) pathogens in blood or lymph.
B) pathogens in interstitial fluid.
C) pathogens that have already entered body cells.
D) chemical mediators of immunity.

Question 38

Which of the following statements regarding antigens and antibodies is false?

A) An antibody usually recognizes and binds to an antigenic determinant.
B) A single antigen may stimulate the immune system to make several distinct antibodies to it.
C) Most antigens are proteins or large polysaccharides on the surfaces of viruses or foreign cells.
D) Each antibody has only one antigen-binding site.

Question 39

The complement system can be activated by

A) inflammatory mediators.
B) antigen-antibody complexes.
C) B cell plasma membrane.
D) T cells.

Question 40

The secondary immune response occurs when memory cells are activated by a second exposure to

A) hormones.
B) antibodies.
C) antigens.
D) macrophages.

Question 41

Bronchitis can be easily acquired by individuals with immunodeficiency disorders. In these situations, bronchitis is an example of

A) a virus.
B) an opportunistic infection.
C) adaptive immunity.
D) an autoimmune disorder.

Question 42

A physician sees a new patient who is 25 years old. The patient reports that she has been experiencing recurrent ear, nose, and throat problems resulting from various infections since she was about 5 years old. The infections last for long periods of time and are difficult to treat. The physician suspects that the patient may have

A) an autoimmune disorder.
B) an allergic reaction.
C) an immunodeficiency disorder.
D) abnormal levels of allergens.

Question 43

Mononucleosis ("mono") is usually caused by EBV, or the Epstein-Barr virus. Mono is more common in children than in adults because adults usually have developed ________ toward the virus.

A) innate immunity
B) adaptive immunity
C) passive immunity

Question 44

In May 2013, a drug-resistant strain of H7N9 bird flu was discovered in China. The implication of a drug-resistant virus strain is that it

A) will be difficult to eradicate.
B) could proliferate slowly.
C) can infect humans as easily as it can infect birds.
D) will be easy to develop new drugs to fight flu infections.

Question 45

________ are a component of the immune system that are able to destroy cancer cells by deploying toxins into infected cells as a means of killing them. In this role they are cytotoxic-that is, "cell killing."

A) Natural killer cells
B) Phagocytes
C) Antibodies
D) B cells

Question 46

Because cytotoxic T cells can recognize viral proteins, they can destroy these infected cells. This is particularly important to individuals with certain kinds of cancers because

A) destroying the infected cells can help slow the spread of the infected cells.
B) destroying the infected cells can help quicken the spread of the infected cells.
C) destroying the infected cells can help prevent future infections of other viruses.

Question 47

Which of the following diseases is thought to be an autoimmune disease?

A) cancer of the bone marrow
B) insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
C) measles and mumps
D) peptic ulcer disease

Question 48

HIV is a virus that is particularly difficult to eradicate

A) because of the size of its DNA genome.
B) because it rarely mutates.
C) because after it mutates it can be resistant to drugs.
D) due to its small size.

Question 49

A physician is trying to determine if a patient has functioning helper T cells. Which of the following events would provide evidence that helper T cells are acting normally?

A) Antibodies recognize and bind to antigens.
B) Memory cells are produced after the secondary immune response.
C) Antibodies are found in the blood.
D) The inflammatory response is triggered.

Question 50

Which of the following are examples of innate immunity? 1. stomach pH
2) natural killer cells
3) B lymphocytes
4) fever

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2, 3, and 4 only
C) 1, 3, and 4 only
D) 1, 2, and 4 only

Question 51

Spring has arrived, and you notice your neighbors are cutting their grass. When you walk outside to check if your mail has arrived, your eyes begin to water and feel itchy. You are more than likely experiencing

A) an overreaction to pollen.
B) a reaction due to an autoimmune disease.
C) inflammation.
D) a secondary immune response.

Question 52

Enzymes are to active sites as

A) antigenic binding sites are to antigenic determinants.
B) viruses are to antigens.
C) antigens are to epitopes.
D) antigenic determinants are to epitopes.

Question 53

Which is the correct order of steps taken by B and T cells to defend against infection in body fluids and cells? 1. B and T cells move to the lymph nodes, spleen, and other parts of the lymphatic system.
2) B and T cells leave the bone marrow and thymus and move to the bloodstream.
3) B and T cells meet and begin to fight viruses or other infectious agents.
4) B and T cells develop antigen receptors.

A) 4, 2, 1, 3
B) 2, 4, 3, 1
C) 4, 3, 2, 1
D) 2, 4, 1, 3

Question 54

What type of immune response is always disadvantageous to a person?

A) inflammatory
B) humoral
C) autoimmune
D) complement-mediated

Question 55

Antigens can be all of the following except

A) proteins.
B) large polysaccharides that protrude from virus surfaces or foreign cells.
C) blood or tissue cells from organisms of the same or different species.
D) lipids such as cholesterol.

Question 56

Most ________ are located at specific areas where bacteria microbes tend to attack so that they can readily engulf and destroy the invading bacteria.

A) red blood cells
B) leukocytes
C) macrophages
D) interferons

Question 57

Anaphylactic shock is an example of an

A) autoimmune disease.
B) immunodeficiency disease.
C) allergic response.
D) acquired autoimmune disease.

Question 58

While playing soccer in your backyard, you disrupt a small fire ant mound. The fire ants emerge and bite your feet. Your feet begin to show swollen, raised areas around the bites. What is happening?

A) Your innate internal defenses have been activated.
B) Your adaptive defenses have been activated.
C) Blood flow to the affected area decreases.
D) You are experiencing passive immunity.

Question 59

A woman sustains irreversible damage to her left lung after being injured in a fire. Her identical twin sister, who lives in another state, offers to donate one of her lungs to her injured sibling. Would physicians view this as an organ transplant surgery with a strong chance of success?

A) Yes; the identical twins would have highly similar self-proteins, and this would likely minimize rejection by cytotoxic T cells.
B) Yes; the identical twins would have highly different self-proteins, and this would likely minimize rejection by B cells.
C) No; the identical twins would have highly similar self-proteins, and this would likely minimize rejection by cytotoxic T cells.

Question 60

Which of the following compounds is produced and secreted by mast cells during an allergic reaction?

A) interferon
B) allergens
C) histamine
D) perforin

Question 61

Which part of this figure shows a clone of memory cells?

A) part A
B) part B
C) part C
D) part D

Question 62

What event could have led to the situation shown in the accompanying figure?

A) A person inhaled some pollen.
B) A person encountered the flu virus.
C) A person was bitten by a spider.
D) A person suffered a heart attack.

Question 63

Which of the following describes a complete defense system?

A) antibodies of the adaptive humoral immune response and interferons
B) antibodies of the adaptive humoral immune response and components of innate immunity
C) phagocytosis only
D) complement system only

Question 64

The second vaccination is beneficial because it

A) contains mast cells that survive longer than 4-5 days.
B) stimulates production of a higher concentration of antibodies in the bloodstream.
C) requires two injections to stimulate antibody formation.
D) keeps previously produced cytotoxic T cells circulating in the bloodstream.

Question 65

After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.
Before traveling to different countries, you may be vaccinated against diseases that you may not normally encounter in your home country. Suppose that you are going to travel to a country that experiences a smallpox outbreak. While you have traveled to this country in the past and thus have received smallpox vaccine, you are required to get a second smallpox vaccine in order to fully protect you from smallpox.
The first vaccination provides immunity because

A) a localized inflammatory response is initiated.
B) the vaccine contains manufactured antibodies against smallpox.
C) antigenic determinants in the vaccine activate B cells, which form memory cells.
D) the vaccine contains antibiotics and other drugs that kill the smallpox virus.

Question 66

Which of the possible following results would support the hypothesis that higher anti-HPV antibody levels are correlated with increased protection from HPV-related cancers?

A) People who have been vaccinated against HPV are diagnosed with cancer at similar rates as people who have not been vaccinated against HPV.
B) People who have been vaccinated twice against HPV are diagnosed with cancer at lower rates than people who have only been vaccinated once against HPV.
C) People who have not been vaccinated against HPV are diagnosed with cancer at lower rates than people who have been vaccinated against HPV.

Question 67

Herd immunity fails if at least what percentage of a population is unvaccinated?

A) 1%
B) 5%
C) 10%
D) 20%

Question 68

A physician diagnoses a patient with a bacterial infection and determines that the patient is not immune to the bacteria. He delivers a shot of blood plasma that contains antibodies to his patient. The physician is transferring

A) lymph nodes.
B) the cell-mediated immune response.
C) antigen receptors.
D) the humoral immune response.

Question 69

Suppose that a person encountered two different antigens at about the same time which initiated two different immune responses (shown in the accompanying figure). What can you conclude from these data?

A) The person likely has been exposed to antigen B before.
B) Antigen A is an allergen.
C) The person is likely undergoing a secondary immune response to antigen A.
D) Antigen B caused an inflammatory response.

Question 70

You have been running a high fever, have stomach cramps, and have felt weak and disoriented for 5 days, so you set up an appointment with your physician. After asking you a few questions, she starts a physical examination by probing for swollen areas in your abdomen. You immediately sense that she is looking for

A) lymph nodes.
B) histamines.
C) antibodies.
D) antigens.

Question 71

Where is the antigen-binding site of this antibody?

A) site A
B) site B
C) site C
D) site D

Question 72

Scientists measured whether individuals who had been vaccinated with anti-HPV vaccines (Gardasil and Cervarix) had detectable levels of anti-HPV antibodies in their blood many years after receiving the vaccines. The data are shown here. Based only on these data, which of the following policy recommendations would you make to the United States Center for Disease Control and Prevention (the agency that sets vaccination schedules) regarding anti-HPV vaccines?

A) Individuals who are vaccinated with Cervarix will never need a "booster" shot even 30 years after initially being vaccinated.
B) Gardasil protects against HPV-related cancer better than Cervarix, so individuals should be vaccinated with Gardasil and not Cervarix.
C) After many years, Cervarix is about twice as effective at preventing HPV-related cancer than Gardasil, so individuals should be vaccinated with Cervarix and not Gardasil.
D) If people are vaccinated with Gardasil, they may need a "booster" shot in the future to maintain high levels of protection from HPV-related cancers.

Question 73

Which of the following are antigens? 1. toxins
2) chemicals
3) foreign particles (for example, splinters)
4) drugs

A) 1, 2, and 3 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 4 only
D) 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 74

Suppose you design a study to test this hypothesis. Your study participants are adults between the ages of 25 and 40 (mean age = 32). You work with an oncologist to determine if the study participants have an HPV-related cancer, and you also measure the concentration of anti-HPV antibodies in their blood. Answer the following questions regarding this study.After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.
HPV is an infection that is normally fought by the human immune system, but it can lead to cancer in some individuals. While we already know that HPV vaccines help prevent HPV-related cancer, researchers are unsure as to what level of antibody concentration a person needs in order to be protected from HPV-related cancers. Scientists hypothesize that higher anti-HPV antibody levels may provide greater protection from HPV-related cancers compared to lower levels. However, strong evidence does not yet exist to support this hypothesis.
From the following choices, select the groups of individuals who would make the best participants for the experimental group in your study.

A) a group of 100 vaccinated adult males and a group of 100 vaccinated adult females
B) a group of 100 unvaccinated adult males and a group of 100 vaccinated adult males
C) a group of 50 vaccinated adult males and a group of 150 vaccinated adult females
D) a group of 100 unvaccinated adult males and a group of 100 unvaccinated adult females

Question 75

Suppose you design a study to test this hypothesis. Your study participants are adults between the ages of 25 and 40 (mean age = 32). You work with an oncologist to determine if the study participants have an HPV-related cancer, and you also measure the concentration of anti-HPV antibodies in their blood. Answer the following questions regarding this study.After reading the paragraph below, answer the questions that follow.
HPV is an infection that is normally fought by the human immune system, but it can lead to cancer in some individuals. While we already know that HPV vaccines help prevent HPV-related cancer, researchers are unsure as to what level of antibody concentration a person needs in order to be protected from HPV-related cancers. Scientists hypothesize that higher anti-HPV antibody levels may provide greater protection from HPV-related cancers compared to lower levels. However, strong evidence does not yet exist to support this hypothesis.
From the following choices, select the groups of individuals who would make the best participants for the control group in your study.

A) a group of 100 vaccinated adult males and a group of 100 vaccinated adult females
B) a group of 100 unvaccinated adult males and a group of 100 vaccinated adult males
C) a group of 50 vaccinated adult males and a group of 150 vaccinated adult females
D) a group of 100 unvaccinated adult males and a group of 100 unvaccinated adult females

Question 76

Suppose that a person has a mutation in a gene that encodes an enzyme responsible for the production of histamine. In this person, mast cells cannot produce and secrete histamine. Which of the following outcomes is most likely to happen if an injury occurs?

A) Macrophages will not be able to secrete signaling molecules.
B) Neutrophils will not be attracted to the injury site.
C) Neutrophils will not be able to phagocytose pathogens at the injury site.
D) Macrophages will not be attracted to the injury site.