Deck 36: Reproduction and Development

Question 1

Females of many insect species, including honeybee queens, can store gametes shed by their mating partners in

A) their nests.
B) the abdominal tract.
C) the cloaca.
D) the uterus.
E) the spermatheca.

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Genetic mutations in asexually reproducing organisms lead to more evolutionary change than do genetic mutations in sexually reproducing ones because

A) asexually reproducing organisms, but not sexually reproducing organisms, pass all mutations on to their offspring.
B) asexually reproducing organisms devote more time and energy to the process of reproduction than do sexually reproducing organisms.
C) sexually reproducing organisms can produce more offspring in a given time than can sexually reproducing organisms.
D) more genetic variation is present in organisms that reproduce asexually than is present in those that reproduce sexually.
E) asexually reproducing organisms have more dominant genes than organisms that reproduce sexually.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Sperm cells are stored within human males in the

A) urethra.
B) prostate.
C) epididymis.
D) seminal vesicles.
E) bulbourethral gland.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Sexual reproduction

A) allows animals to conserve resources and reproduce only during optimal conditions.
B) can produce diverse phenotypes that may enhance survival of a population in a changing environment.
C) yields more numerous offspring more rapidly than is possible with asexual reproduction.
D) enables males and females to remain isolated from each other while rapidly colonizing habitats.
E) guarantees that both parents will provide care for each offspring.

Question 5

Which of the following patterns of reproduction are found only among invertebrate animals?

A) sexual and asexual reproduction
B) external and internal fertilization
C) hermaphroditism and parthenogenesis
D) pheromonal and hormonal coordination
E) fission and budding

Question 6

Among mammals, the male and female genital structures that consist mostly of erectile tissue include the

A) penis and clitoris.
B) vas deferens and oviduct.
C) testes and ovaries.
D) seminiferous tubules and hymen.
E) prostate and ovaries.

Question 7

Evidence that parthenogenic whiptail lizards are derived from sexually reproducing ancestors includes

A) the requirement for male-like behaviors in some females before their partners will ovulate.
B) the development and then regression of testes prior to sexual maturation.
C) the observation that all of the offspring are haploid.
D) dependence on favorable weather conditions for ovulation to occur.
E) the persistence of a vestigial penis among some of the females.

Question 8

Among nonmammalian vertebrates, the cloaca is an anatomical structure that functions as a

A) specialized sperm-transfer device produced only by males.
B) shared pathway for the digestive, excretory, and reproductive systems.
C) region bordered by the labia minora and clitoris in females.
D) source of nutrients for developing sperm in the testes.
E) gland that secretes mucus to lubricate the vaginal opening.

Question 9

Environmental cues that influence the timing of reproduction generally do so by

A) increasing the body temperature.
B) providing access to water for external fertilization.
C) increasing the ambient temperature to that which is comfortable for sex.
D) causing direct effects on gonadal structures.
E) causing direct effects on hormonal control mechanisms.

Question 10

External chemical signals that coordinate potential reproductive partners are called

A) hormones.
B) pheromones.
C) paracrine signals.
D) cytokines.
E) gametes.

Question 11

Regeneration, the regrowth of lost body parts, normally follows

A) all types of asexual reproduction.
B) all types of sexual reproduction.
C) fission.
D) fragmentation.
E) parthenogenesis.

Question 12

Animals with reproduction dependent on internal fertilization need not have

A) any copulatory organs.
B) a receptacle that receives sperm.
C) behavioral interaction between males and females.
D) internal development of embryos.
E) haploid gametes.

Question 13

One of the evolutionary "enigmas," or unsolved puzzles, of sexual reproduction is that

A) sexual reproduction allows for more rapid population growth than does asexual reproduction.
B) only half of the offspring from sexually reproducing females are also females.
C) asexual reproduction produces offspring of greater genetic variety.
D) sexual reproduction is completed more rapidly than asexual reproduction.
E) asexual reproduction is better suited to environments with extremely varying conditions.

Question 14

Asexual reproduction results in greater reproductive success than does sexual reproduction when

A) pathogens are rapidly diversifying.
B) a species has accumulated numerous deleterious mutations.
C) there is some potential for rapid overpopulation.
D) a species is expanding into diverse geographic settings.
E) a species is in stable and favorable environments.

Question 15

The junction of the upper vagina and the uterus is called the

A) fallopian tube.
B) clitoris.
C) oviduct.
D) labia majora.
E) cervix.

Question 16

In close comparisons, external fertilization often yields more offspring than does internal fertilization. However, internal fertilization offers the advantage that

A) it is the only way to ensure the survival of the species.
B) it requires less time and energy to be devoted to reproduction.
C) the smaller number of offspring produced often receive a greater amount of parental investment.
D) it permits the most rapid population increase.
E) it requires expression of fewer genes and maximizes genetic stability.

Question 17

An oocyte released from a human ovary enters the oviduct as a result of

A) the beating action of the flagellum on the oocyte.
B) the force of the follicular ejection directing the oocyte into the oviduct.
C) the wavelike beating of cilia lining the oviduct.
D) movement of the oocyte through the pulsating uterus into the oviduct.
E) peristaltic contraction of ovarian muscles.

Question 18

Like many other fishes, bluehead wrasses utilize harem mating as they reproduce sexually. However, unlike most fishes

A) they are simultaneous hermaphrodites.
B) they function without any signaling by steroid hormones.
C) they undergo a prolonged diapause during low tide.
D) their offspring can be either haploid or diploid.
E) large females morph into reproductively competent males.

Question 19

Sexual reproduction patterns include the example of

A) fragmentation.
B) budding.
C) hermaphroditism.
D) parthenogenesis.
E) fission.

Question 20

An advantage of asexual reproduction is that it

A) allows the species to endure long periods of unstable environmental conditions.
B) enhances genetic variability in the species.
C) enables the species to rapidly colonize habitats that are favorable to that species.
D) produces offspring that respond effectively to new pathogens.
E) allows a species to easily rid itself of harmful mutations.

Question 21

In vertebrate animals, spermatogenesis and oogenesis differ in that

A) oogenesis begins at the onset of sexual maturity, whereas spermatogenesis begins during embryonic development.
B) oogenesis produces four haploid cells, whereas spermatogenesis produces only one functional spermatozoon.
C) cytokinesis is unequal in oogenesis, whereas it is equal in spermatogenesis.
D) oogenesis ends at menopause, whereas spermatogenesis is finished before birth.
E) spermatogenesis is not completed until after fertilization occurs, but oogenesis is completed by the time a girl is born.

Question 22

In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human uterine cycle are

A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal.
B) follicular → luteal → secretory.
C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory.
D) follicular → ovulation → luteal.
E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation.

Question 23

The surgical removal of the seminal vesicles would likely

A) cause sterility because sperm would not be produced.
B) cause sterility because sperm would not be able to exit the body.
C) greatly reduce the volume of semen.
D) enhance the fertilization potency of sperm in the uterus.
E) cause the testes to migrate back into the abdominal cavity.

Question 24

Among human males, both semen and urine normally travel along the

A) vas deferens.
B) urinary bladder.
C) seminal vesicle.
D) urethra.
E) ureter.

Question 25

During human heterosexual (mutual) excitement, vasocongestion occurs

A) only in the penis.
B) only in the testes.
C) only in the clitoris.
D) only in the upper vagina.
E) in the clitoris, vagina, and penis.

Question 26

A primary response by the Leydig cells in the testes to the presence of luteinizing hormone is an increase in the synthesis and secretion of

A) inhibin.
B) testosterone.
C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin.
E) progesterone.

Question 27

A male's "primary" sex characteristics include

A) deepening of the voice at puberty.
B) embryonic differentiation of the seminal vesicles.
C) growth of skeletal muscle.
D) elongation of the skeleton prior to puberty.
E) onset of growth of facial hair at puberty.

Question 28

In humans, the follicular cells that remain behind in the ovary following ovulation become

A) the ovarian endometrium that is shed at the time of the menses.
B) a steroid-hormone-synthesizing structure called the corpus luteum.
C) the thickened portion of the uterine wall.
D) swept into the fallopian tube.
E) the placenta, which secretes cervical mucus.

Question 29

Increasing the temperature of the human scrotum by 2°C (i.e., near the normal body core temperature) and holding it there would

A) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing the production of gonadal steroid hormones.
B) reduce the fertility of the man by impairing spermatogenesis.
C) reduce the man's sexual interest.
D) increase the fertility of the affected man by enhancing the rate of steroidogenesis.
E) have no effect on male reproductive processes.

Question 30

The moment of orgasm is characterized by

A) the ovulation of the oocyte from the ovary.
B) the release of sperm from the seminiferous tubules.
C) rhythmic contraction of many parts of the reproductive system.
D) increased synthesis and release of ovarian steroid hormones.
E) increased synthesis and release of testicular steroid hormones.

Question 31

An inactivating mutation in the progesterone receptor gene would likely result in

A) the absence of secondary sex characteristics.
B) the absence of pituitary gonadotropin hormones.
C) the inability of the uterus to support pregnancy.
D) enlarged and hyperactive uterine endometrium.
E) the absence of mammary gland development.

Question 32

The primary difference between estrous and menstrual cycles is that

A) the endometrium shed by the uterus during the estrous cycle is reabsorbed, whereas the shed endometrium of menstrual cycles is excreted from the body.
B) behavioral changes during estrous cycles are much less apparent than those of menstrual cycles.
C) season and climate have less pronounced effects on estrous cycles than they do on menstrual cycles.
D) copulation normally occurs across the estrous cycle, whereas in menstrual cycles copulation only occurs during the period surrounding ovulation.
E) most estrous cycles are of much longer duration compared to menstrual cycles.

Question 33

At the end of a nonpregnant ovarian cycle, the breakdown and discharge of the soft uterine tissues is called

A) menstruation.
B) lactation.
C) fertilization.
D) menopause.
E) ovulation.

Question 34

In correct chronological order, the three phases of the human ovarian cycle are

A) menstrual → ovulation → luteal.
B) follicular → luteal → secretory.
C) menstrual → proliferative → secretory.
D) follicular → ovulation → luteal.
E) proliferative → luteal → ovulation.

Question 35

A reproductive hormone that is secreted directly from a structure in the brain is

A) testosterone.
B) estradiol.
C) progesterone.
D) follicle-stimulating hormone.
E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone.

Question 36

Testosterone is synthesized primarily by the

A) sperm cells.
B) hypothalamus.
C) Leydig cells.
D) anterior pituitary gland.
E) seminiferous tubules.

Question 37

Human sperm cells first arise in the

A) prostate gland.
B) vas deferens.
C) seminiferous tubules.
D) epididymis.
E) Sertoli cells.

Question 38

Most of the noncellular fluid in ejaculated human semen is composed of

A) the secretions of the seminiferous tubules.
B) the secretions of the bulbourethral glands.
C) the secretions of the seminal vesicles.
D) the secretions of the prostate gland.
E) anticoagulant enzymes.

Question 39

Mature human sperm and ova are similar in that they

A) both have the same number of chromosomes.
B) are approximately the same size
C) each have a flagellum that provides motility.
D) are produced from puberty until death.
E) are formed before birth.

Question 40

At the time of fertilization, the complete maturation of each oogonium has resulted in

A) one secondary oocyte.
B) two primary oocytes.
C) four secondary oocytes.
D) four primary oocytes.
E) four zygotes.

Question 41

For lactation to take place, the synthesis of breast milk and its release from the mammary gland, respectively, are caused by

A) testosterone and dihydrotestosterone.
B) estrogen and progesterone.
C) cortisol and testosterone.
D) prolactin and oxytocin.
E) luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone.

Question 42

Ovulation is the follicular response to a burst of secretion of

A) LH.
B) progesterone.
C) inhibin.
D) prolactin.
E) estradiol.

Question 43

What embryo-produced hormone maintains progesterone and estrogen secretion by the corpus luteum through the first trimester of pregnancy?

A) luteinizing hormone (LH)
B) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
C) progesterone
D) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH)

Question 44

The use of birth control pills (oral contraceptives)

A) reduces the incidence of ovulation.
B) prevents fertilization by keeping the sperm and egg physically separated by a mechanical barrier.
C) prevents implantation of an embryo.
D) prevents sperm from exiting the male urethra.
E) prevents oocytes from entering the uterus.

Question 45

For the 10 days following ovulation in a nonpregnant menstrual cycle, the main source of progesterone is the

A) adrenal cortex.
B) anterior pituitary.
C) corpus luteum.
D) developing follicle.
E) placenta.

Question 46

A contraceptive pill that continuously inhibits the release of GnRH from the hypothalamus will

A) increase the production of estrogen and progesterone by the ovaries.
B) initiate ovulation.
C) reduce the secretion of gonadotropins from the anterior pituitary gland.
D) stimulate the secretion of LH and FSH from the posterior pituitary gland.
E) increase the flow phase of the menstrual cycle.

Question 47

For normal human fertilization to occur

A) many ova must be released.
B) the uterus must be enlarged.
C) only one sperm need penetrate one egg.
D) secretion of pituitary FSH and LH must decrease.
E) the secondary oocyte must implant in the uterus.

Question 48

In excreted urine, a reliable "marker" that a pregnancy has initiated is

A) progesterone.
B) estrogen.
C) follicle-stimulating hormone.
D) chorionic gonadotropin.
E) hypothalamic-releasing hormones.

Question 49

The hypothalamic hormone that stimulates hormone secretion by the anterior pituitary gland is

A) LH.
B) FSH.
C) inhibin.
D) GnRH.
E) estradiol.

Question 50

Fertilization of human eggs usually takes place in the

A) ovary.
B) uterus.
C) vagina.
D) oviduct.
E) cervix.

Question 51

Prior to ovulation, the primary steroid hormone secreted by the growing follicle is

A) LH.
B) FSH.
C) inhibin.
D) GnRH.
E) estradiol.

Question 52

The primary function of the corpus luteum is to

A) nourish and protect the egg cell.
B) produce prolactin in the alveoli.
C) maintain progesterone and estrogen synthesis after ovulation has occurred.
D) stimulate the development of the mammary glands.
E) support pregnancy in the second and third trimesters.

Question 53

Two contraceptive methods that are generally irreversible and that block the gametes from moving to a site where fertilization can occur are

A) the male condom and the female condom.
B) the male condom and oral contraceptives.
C) vasectomy and tubal ligation.
D) coitus interruptus and the rhythm method.
E) the diaphragm and the subcutaneous progesterone implant.

Question 54

Labor contractions can be increased by the medical use of a synthetic drug that mimics the action of

A) inhibin.
B) luteinizing hormone.
C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin.
E) vasopressin.

Question 55

The hormone progesterone is produced in the

A) pituitary and acts directly on the ovary.
B) uterus and acts directly on the pituitary.
C) ovary and acts directly on the uterus.
D) pituitary and acts directly on the uterus.

Question 56

The hypothalamic hormone that triggers the secretion of FSH is

A) luteinizing hormone (LH).
B) estradiol.
C) progesterone.
D) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG).
E) gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH).

Question 57

So-called "combination" birth control pills function in contraception by

A) inhibiting the release of GnRH, FSH, and LH.
B) irritating the uterine lining so as to prevent implantation.
C) causing spontaneous abortions.
D) blocking progesterone receptors, so that pregnancy cannot be maintained.
E) binding to and inactivating any sperm that enter the oviduct.

Question 58

The secretion of follicle-stimulating hormone from the anterior pituitary gland is reduced by

A) inhibin.
B) luteinizing hormone.
C) oxytocin.
D) prolactin.
E) vasopressin.

Question 59

Menopause is characterized by

A) reduced synthesis of ovarian steroids despite high levels of gonadotropin hormones.
B) a decline in production of the gonadotropin hormones by the anterior pituitary gland.
C) wearing away of the uterine endometrium.
D) an increase in the blood supply to the ovaries.
E) a halt in the synthesis of gonadotropin-releasing hormone by the brain.

Question 60

Among these contraception methods, the highest risk of accidental pregnancy accompanies

A) the use of a diaphragm.
B) the use of a condom.
C) the practice of coitus interruptus.
D) a verified vasectomy.
E) the practice of the "rhythm method."

Question 61

Contact of a sea urchin egg with signal molecules on sperm causes the egg to undergo a brief

A) mitosis.
B) membrane depolarization.
C) apoptosis.
D) vitellogenesis.
E) acrosomal reaction.

Question 62

The outer-to-inner sequence of tissue layers in a post-gastrulation vertebrate embryo is

A) endoderm → ectoderm → mesoderm.
B) mesoderm → endoderm → ectoderm.
C) ectoderm → mesoderm → endoderm.
D) ectoderm → endoderm → mesoderm.
E) endoderm → mesoderm → ectoderm.

Question 63

During the early part of the cleavage stage in frog development, the rapidly developing cells

A) skip the mitosis phase of the cell cycle.
B) skip the S phase of the cell cycle.
C) skip the G1 and G2 phases of the cell cycle.
D) rapidly increase the volume and mass of the embryo.
E) skip the cytokinesis phase of the cell cycle.

Question 64

Fertilization of an egg without activation is most like

A) placing the key in the ignition of a car but not starting the engine.
B) resting during halftime of a basketball game.
C) preparing a pie from scratch and baking it in the oven.
D) walking to the cafeteria and eating lunch.
E) dropping a rock off a cliff and watching it land in the valley below.

Question 65

Fertilization normally

A) reinstates diploidy.
B) follows gastrulation.
C) is required for parthenogenesis.
D) merges two diploid cells into one haploid cell.
E) precedes ovulation.

Question 66

In an egg cell treated with EDTA, a chemical that binds calcium and magnesium ions, the

A) acrosomal reaction would be blocked.
B) fusion of sperm and egg nuclei would be blocked.
C) fast block to polyspermy would not occur.
D) fertilization envelope would not be formed.
E) zygote would not contain maternal and paternal chromosomes.

Question 67

The cortical reaction functions directly in the

A) formation of a fertilization envelope.
B) production of a fast block to polyspermy.
C) release of hydrolytic enzymes from the sperm cell.
D) generation of a nerve-like impulse by the egg cell.
E) fusion of egg and sperm nuclei.

Question 68

A human zygote undergoes its first cell division

A) 5 seconds after fertilization.
B) 30 minutes after fertilization.
C) 90 minutes after fertilization.
D) 4 hours after fertilization.
E) 24 hours after fertilization.

Question 69

Contact of a sperm with signal molecules in the coat of an egg causes the sperm to undergo

A) mitosis.
B) depolarization.
C) apoptosis.
D) vitellogenesis.
E) the acrosomal reaction.

Question 70

In mammals, the nuclei resulting from the union of the sperm and the egg are first truly diploid at the end of the

A) acrosomal reaction.
B) completion of spermatogenesis.
C) initial cleavage.
D) activation of the egg.
E) completion of gastrulation.

Question 71

If gastrulation was blocked by an environmental toxin, then

A) cleavage would not occur in the zygote.
B) embryonic germ layers would not form.
C) fertilization would be blocked.
D) the blastula would not be formed.
E) the blastopore would form above the gray crescent in the animal pole.

Question 72

Cells move to new positions as an embryo establishes its three germ tissue layers during

A) determination.
B) cleavage.
C) fertilization.
D) induction.
E) gastrulation.

Question 73

A reproductive difference between sea urchins and humans is

A) the sea urchin egg completes meiosis prior to fertilization, but meiosis in humans is completed after fertilization.
B) sea urchin eggs are produced by meiosis, but human eggs are produced by mitosis.
C) sea urchin eggs and sperm are of equal size, but human eggs are much bigger than human sperm.
D) sea urchins, but not humans, have a need to block polyspermy because only in sea urchins can there be more than one source of sperm to fertilize the eggs.
E) sea urchin zygotes get their mitochondria from the sperm but human zygotes get their mitochondria from the egg.

Question 74

Even in the absence of sperm, metabolic activity in an egg can be artificially activated by

A) abnormally high levels of carbonic acid in the cytosol.
B) abnormally low levels of extracellular oxygen.
C) injection of calcium ions into the cytosol.
D) exposure to the low pH of the uterus.
E) depletion of its ATP supplies.

Question 75

Which of the following correctly displays the sequence of developmental milestones?

A) blastula → gastrula → cleavage
B) blastula → cleavage → gastrula
C) cleavage → gastrula → blastula
D) cleavage → blastula → gastrula
E) gastrula → blastula → cleavage

Question 76

During fertilization, the acrosomal contents

A) block polyspermy.
B) help propel more sperm toward the egg.
C) digest the protective jelly coat on the surface of the egg.
D) nourish the mitochondria of the sperm.
E) trigger the completion of meiosis by the sperm.

Question 77

As an embryo develops, new cells are produced as the result of

A) differentiation.
B) preformation.
C) cell division.
D) morphogenesis.
E) epigenesis.

Question 78

The archenteron of the developing sea urchin eventually develops into the

A) reproductive organs.
B) blastocoel.
C) heart and lungs.
D) digestive tract.
E) brain and spinal cord.

Question 79

The formation of the fertilization membrane requires an increase in the availability of

A) bicarbonate ions.
B) calcium ions.
C) hydrogen ions.
D) potassium ions.
E) sodium ions.

Question 80

In sea urchins, the "fast block" and the longer-lasting "slow block" to polyspermy, respectively, are

A) the acrosomal reaction and the formation of egg white.
B) the cortical reaction and the formation of yolk protein.
C) the jelly coat of the egg and the vitelline membrane.
D) membrane depolarization and the cortical reaction.
E) inactivation of the sperm acrosome.