Deck 30: Reproduction and Domestication of Flowering Plants

Question 1

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in a pollen sac?

A) sporangia → meiosis → two haploid cells → meiosis → two pollen grains per cell
B) pollen grain → meiosis → two generative cells → two tube cells per pollen grain
C) two haploid cells → meiosis → generative cell → tube cell-fertilization → pollen grain
D) pollen grain → mitosis → microspores → meiosis → generative cell plus tube cell
E) microsporocyte → meiosis → microspores → mitosis → two haploid cells per pollen grain

Answer 1

E

Question 2

Where does meiosis occur in a flowering plant?

A) megasporocyte
B) microsporocyte
C) endosperm
D) pollen tube
E) megasporocyte and microsporocyte

Answer 2

E

Question 3

Microsporangia in flowering plants are located in the

A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Which of the following is incorrectly paired with its life-cycle generation?

A) anther-gametophyte
B) pollen-gametophyte
C) embryo sac-gametophyte
D) stamen-sporophyte
E) embryo-sporophyte

Question 5

Which of the following statements is true of most angiosperms?

A) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed.
B) They have an ovary that becomes a fruit.
C) They have a small (reduced) sporophyte.
D) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed and an ovary that becomes a fruit.
E) They have a triploid endosperm within the seed, an ovary that becomes a fruit, and a small (reduced) sporophyte.

Question 6

Which of the following statements is true of plants?

A) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes.
B) Meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores.
C) The gametophyte is within the flower in angiosperms.
D) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes, and meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores.
E) Mitosis occurs in gametophytes to produce gametes, meiosis occurs in sporophytes to produce spores, and the gametophyte is within the flower in angiosperms.

Question 7

A flowering plant with a deleterious mutation in microsporogenesis would most likely

A) fail to produce sepals.
B) fail to produce petals.
C) fail to produce anthers.
D) fail to produce pollen.
E) fail to produce ovules.

Question 8

Which of the following is the correct order of floral organs from the outside to the inside of a complete flower?

A) petals → sepals → stamens → carpels
B) sepals → stamens → petals → carpels
C) spores → gametes → zygote → embryo
D) sepals → petals → stamens → carpels
E) male gametophyte → female gametophyte → sepals → petals

Question 9

Which of the following is a correct sequence of processes that takes place when a flowering plant reproduces?

A) meiosis → fertilization → ovulation → germination
B) fertilization → meiosis → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm
C) meiosis → pollination → nuclear fusion → formation of embryo and endosperm
D) growth of pollen tube → pollination → germination → fertilization
E) meiosis → mitosis → nuclear fusion → pollen

Question 10

Meiosis occurs within all of the following flower parts except the

A) ovule.
B) style.
C) megasporangium.
D) anther.
E) ovary.

Question 11

In some angiosperms, other floral parts contribute to what is commonly called the fruit. Which of the following fruits is derived mostly from an enlarged receptacle?

A) pea
B) raspberry
C) apple
D) pineapple
E) peach

Question 12

Which of the following is the correct sequence during the alternation of generations life cycle in a flowering plant?

A) sporophyte → meiosis → gametophyte → gametes → fertilization → diploid zygote
B) sporophyte → mitosis → gametophyte → meiosis → sporophyte
C) haploid gametophyte → gametes → meiosis → fertilization → diploid sporophyte
D) sporophyte → spores → meiosis → gametophyte → gametes
E) haploid sporophyte → spores → fertilization → diploid gametophyte

Question 13

Which of the following occurs in an angiosperm ovule?

A) An antheridium forms from the megasporophyte.
B) A megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis.
C) The nucleus forms a diploid egg.
D) A pollen tube emerges to accept pollen after pollination.
E) The endosperm surrounds the megaspore mother cell.

Question 14

In the life cycle of an angiosperm, which of the following stages is diploid?

A) megaspore
B) generative nucleus of a pollen grain
C) polar nuclei of the embryo sac
D) microsporocyte
E) both megaspore and polar nuclei

Question 15

The ovary is most often located on/in the

A) stamen.
B) carpel.
C) petals.
D) sepals.
E) receptacle.

Question 16

A mature, unfertilized ovule in an angiosperm is the result of

A) a single meiotic division.
B) a single mitotic division.
C) both meiotic and mitotic divisions.
D) mitosis from the megaspore mother cell.
E) differentiation from the suspensor tissues.

Question 17

In flowering plants, pollen is released from the

A) anther.
B) stigma.
C) carpel.
D) filament.
E) pollen tube.

Question 18

All of the following are primary functions of flowers except

A) pollen production.
B) photosynthesis.
C) meiosis.
D) egg production.
E) sexual reproduction.

Question 19

At the conclusion of meiosis in plants, the end products are always four haploid

A) spores.
B) eggs.
C) sperm.
D) seeds.
E) gametes.

Question 20

Which of the following statements regarding flowering plants is false?

A) The sporophyte is the dominant generation.
B) Female gametophytes develop from megaspores within the anthers.
C) Pollination is the delivery of pollen to the stigma of a carpel.
D) The food-storing endosperm is derived from the cell that contains two polar nuclei and one sperm nucleus.
E) Flowers produce fruits from the ovaries.

Question 21

What is the first step in the germination of a seed?

A) pollination
B) fertilization
C) imbibition
D) hydrolysis of starch and other food reserves
E) emergence of the radicle

Question 22

Which of the following "vegetables" is botanically a fruit?

A) potato
B) lettuce
C) radish
D) celery
E) green beans

Question 23

In which of the following pairs are the two terms equivalent?

A) ovule-egg
B) embryo sac-female gametophyte
C) endosperm-male gametophyte
D) seed-zygote
E) microspore-pollen grain

Question 24

Carpellate flowers

A) are perfect.
B) are complete.
C) produce pollen.
D) are found only on dioecious plants.
E) develop into fruits.

Question 25

Which of the following events suggests there is a change in the egg cell membrane after penetration by a sperm?

A) The pollen tube grows away from the egg toward the polar nuclei.
B) The Ca2+ concentration increases in the cytoplasm of the egg.
C) The egg plasmolyzes.
D) Double fertilization occurs.
E) The egg changes color.

Question 26

Which of the following would be considered a multiple fruit?

A) apple
B) strawberry
C) raspberry
D) pineapple
E) corn on the cob

Question 27

As a flower develops, which transition is most likely to occur?

A) The microspores become pollen grains.
B) The ovule becomes a fruit.
C) The petals are retained.
D) The vegetative nucleus becomes a sperm nucleus.
E) The ovules become ovaries.

Question 28

Where and by which process are sperm cells formed in plants?

A) meiosis in pollen grains
B) meiosis in anthers
C) mitosis in male gametophyte pollen tube
D) mitosis in the micropyle
E) mitosis in the embryo sac

Question 29

S1 pollen from an S1S2 genotype in a species exhibiting gametophytic self-incompatibility could potentially fertilize all the eggs in which genotype(s) of the same species?

A) S1S1
B) S1S2
C) S1S3
D) S2S3
E) A, B and C

Question 30

What is typically the result of double fertilization in angiosperms?

A) The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient tissue.
B) A triploid zygote is formed.
C) Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed.
D) Two embryos develop in every seed.
E) The antipodal cells develop into the seed coat.

Question 31

Fruits develop from

A) microsporangia.
B) receptacles.
C) fertilized eggs.
D) ovaries.
E) ovules.

Question 32

What is the difference between pollination and fertilization in flowering plants?

A) Fertilization precedes pollination.
B) Pollination easily occurs between plants of different species, whereas fertilization is within a species.
C) Pollen is formed within megasporangia so that male and female gametes are near each other.
D) Pollination is the transfer of pollen from an anther to a stigma. Fertilization is the fusion of haploid nuclei.
E) If fertilization occurs, pollination is unnecessary.

Question 33

The structure of a mature, functional fruit always includes

A) one or more seeds.
B) extensive vascular connections to the parent plant.
C) fleshy cells rich in sugars.
D) brightly colored pigments to attract animal dispersers.
E) subtending bracts to protect against predators.

Question 34

The embryo of a grass seed is enclosed by two protective sheaths, a(n) ________, which covers the young shoot, and a(n) ________, which covers the young root.

A) cotyledon; radicle
B) hypocotyl; epicotyl
C) coleoptile; coleorhiza
D) scutellum; coleoptile
E) epicotyl; radicle

Question 35

A parent with an S1S2 genotype exhibiting sporophytic self-incompatibility can potentially fertilize which of the following plant genotypes of the same species with pollen grains?

A) S1S3
B) S2S3
C) S3S4
D) S1S4
E) Half of all the pollen grains could be successful.

Question 36

The primary function of the integument of an ovule is to

A) protect against animal predation.
B) ensure double fertilization.
C) form a seed coat.
D) direct development of the endosperm.
E) produce hormones that ensure successful pollination.

Question 37

In flowering plants, a mature male gametophyte contains

A) two haploid gametes and a diploid pollen grain.
B) a generative cell and a tube cell.
C) two sperm nuclei and one tube cell nucleus.
D) two haploid microspores.
E) a haploid nucleus and a diploid pollen wall.

Question 38

Which of the following statements argues an advantage for flowering plants to maintain an extended gametophyte generation?

A) The protection of female gametophytes within ovules keeps them from drying out.
B) Sperm with flagella can reach the egg faster.
C) It provides sufficient time for the integument to develop into a seed coat.
D) It allows for a complex nucleus to develop.
E) It allows more time for potential pollination.

Question 39

Three mitotic divisions within the female gametophyte of a flowering plant will produce

A) three antipodal cells, two polar nuclei, one egg, and two synergids.
B) the triple fusion nucleus.
C) three pollen grains.
D) two antipodal cells, two polar nuclei, two eggs, and two synergids.
E) a tube nucleus, a generative cell, and a sperm cell.

Question 40

Which of the following best describes the ploidy level of a fertilized embryo sac?

A) All cells are diploid.
B) All cells are triploid.
C) All cells are polyploid.
D) The ploidy level varies among species.
E) There are haploid, diploid, and triploid cells.

Question 41

What effects would occur in a mutant of Arabidopsis that cannot synthesize GABA within its flowers?

A) Pollen tube growth would not be directed toward the egg, and fertilization would not occur.
B) The seeds from the flowers would be unable to break dormancy.
C) The pollen grain would not form a pollen tube due to incompatibility with the pollen tube.
D) The length of the style would be increased to the point where the growing pollen tube would be unable to reach the synergids.

Question 42

Which of the following statements is true of protoplast fusion?

A) It occurs when the second sperm nucleus fuses with the polar nuclei in the embryo sac.
B) It can be used to form new plant varieties by combining genomes from two plants.
C) It is used to develop gene banks to preserve genetic variability.
D) It is the method of test-tube cloning that produces whole plants from callus.
E) It occurs within a callus that is developing in tissue culture.

Question 43

Which of the following statements is true for a species that produces seeds by apomixis?

A) The seed coat is made of diploid cells derived from the ovule of a flower.
B) The embryo consists of diploid cells derived from fertilization of a haploid egg by a haploid sperm.
C) The scutellum is the primary food storage tissue of the embryo.
D) A haploid embryo is contained within the seed.
E) The embryo of the seed is genetically distinct from the parent plant.

Question 44

Recent research has shown that fertilization requires that carpels recognize pollen grains as "self or nonself." For self-incompatibility, the system requires

A) the rejection of nonself cells.
B) the rejection of self cells.
C) carpel incompatibility with the egg cells.
D) that the flowers be incomplete.
E) the union of genetically identical sperm and egg cells.

Question 45

Which of the following types of plants are incapable of self-pollination?

A) dioecious
B) monoecious
C) complete
D) wind-pollinated
E) insect-pollinated

Question 46

All of the following genetic engineering strategies are being pursued with the goal of preventing transgene escape from genetically modified crops except

A) the introduction of male sterility into crops.
B) the creation of transgenic crops with apomictic seeds.
C) the introduction of trangenes into the chloroplast DNA.
D) the creation of crops with flowers that develop normally, but fail to open.
E) the creation of transgenic crops that hybridize more easily.

Question 47

You are studying a plant from the Amazon rain forest that shows strong self-incompatibility. To characterize this reproductive mechanism, you would look for

A) ribonuclease (RNAase) activity in stigma cells.
B) RNA in the plants.
C) pollen grains with very thick walls.
D) carpels that cannot produce eggs by meiosis.
E) systems of wind, but not insect, pollination.

Question 48

The following questions refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an angiosperm shown in Figure 30.1.
Figure 30.1
Based on Figure 30.1, which cell(s) guide(s) the pollen tube to the egg cell?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 49

Which of the following is a potential advantage of introducing apomixis into hybrid crop species?

A) Cultivars would be better able to cope with a rapidly changing environment.
B) They would have a larger potential genome than inbred crops.
C) All of the desirable traits of the cultivar would be passed on to offspring.
D) They would benefit from positive mutations in their DNA.
E) It would be easier to introduce novel genes.

Question 50

Which of the following is true about vegetative reproduction?

A) It involves both meiosis and mitosis to produce haploid and diploid cells.
B) It produces vegetables and not fruits.
C) It involves meiosis only.
D) It can lead to genetically altered forms of the species.
E) It produces clones of the parent plant.

Question 51

The following questions refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an angiosperm shown in Figure 30.1.
Figure 30.1
Based on Figure 30.1, which cell(s), after fertilization, give(s) rise to the embryo plant?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 52

Which of the following could be considered an evolutionary advantage of asexual reproduction in plants?

A) increased success of progeny in a stable environment
B) increased agricultural productivity in a rapidly changing environment
C) maintenance and expansion of a large genome
D) production of numerous progeny
E) increased ability to adapt to a change in the environment

Question 53

Which of the following is a true statement about clonal reproduction in plants?

A) Clones of plants do not occur naturally.
B) Cloning, although achieved in animals, has not been demonstrated in plants.
C) Making cuttings of ornamental plants is a form of fragmentation.
D) Reproduction of plants by cloning may be either sexual or asexual.
E) Viable seeds can result from sexual reproduction only.

Question 54

A seed develops from

A) an ovum.
B) a pollen grain.
C) an ovule.
D) an ovary.
E) an embryo.

Question 55

Genetic incompatibility does not affect

A) the attraction of a suitable insect pollinator.
B) the germination of the pollen on the stigma.
C) the growth of the pollen tube in the style.
D) the membrane permeability of cells.
E) different individuals of the same species.

Question 56

Biofuels are mainly produced by

A) the breakdown of cell wall biopolymers into sugars that can be fermented.
B) plants that convert hemicellulose into gasoline.
C) the genetic engineering of ethanol-generating genes into plants.
D) transgenic crops that have cell walls containing ethylene.
E) plants that are easy to grow in arid environments.

Question 57

The following questions refer to the diagram of an embryo sac of an angiosperm shown in Figure 30.1.
Figure 30.1
Based on Figure 30.1, which cell(s) become(s) the triploid endosperm?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 58

Which of the following is a scientific concern related to creating genetically modified crops?

A) Herbicide resistance may spread to weedy species.
B) Beneficial insects may be harmed by eating pest species.
C) Their adaptive advantages would allow them to overpower natural ecosystems.
D) The monetary costs of growing genetically modified plants are significantly greater than those of traditional breeding techniques.
E) Genetically modified plants are less stable and may revert back to parental genotypes.

Question 59

The most immediate potential benefits of introducing genetically modified crops include all of the following except

A) increasing the amount of land suitable for agriculture.
B) creating crops with better potential for biofuel production.
C) creating crops with better nutritional attributes.
D) increasing crop yield.
E) decreasing the mutation rate of certain genes.

Question 60

Regardless of where in the world a vineyard is located, in order for the winery to produce a Burgundy, it must use varietal grapes that originated in Burgundy, France. The most effective way for a new California grower to plant a vineyard to produce Burgundy is to

A) plant seeds obtained from French varietal Burgundy grapes.
B) transplant varietal Burgundy plants from France.
C) acquire a tissue culture of varietal Burgundy grapes from France.
D) cross French Burgundy grapes with native American grapes.
E) graft varietal Burgundy grape scions onto native (Californian) root stocks.

Question 61

Double fertilization means that

A) flowers must be pollinated twice to yield fruits and seeds.
B) every egg must receive two sperm to produce an embryo.
C) one sperm is needed to fertilize the egg, and a second sperm is needed to fertilize the polar nuclei.
D) the egg of the embryo sac is diploid.
E) every sperm has two nuclei.

Question 62

Which statement concerning grafting is correct?

A) Stocks and scions refer to twigs of different species.
B) Stocks come from vines, but scions come from trees.
C) Stocks provide root systems for grafting.
D) Grafting creates new species.
E) Stocks and scions must come from unrelated species.

Question 63

"Golden Rice"

A) is resistant to various herbicides, making it practical to weed rice fields with those herbicides.
B) is resistant to a virus that commonly attacks rice fields.
C) includes bacterial genes that produce a toxin that reduces damage from insect pests.
D) produces larger, golden grains that increase crop yields.
E) contains daffodil genes that increase vitamin A content.

Question 64

Some dioecious species have the XY genotype for male and XX for female. After double fertilization, what would be the genotypes of the embryos and endosperm nuclei?

A) embryo X/endosperm XX or embryo Y/endosperm XY
B) embryo XX/endosperm XX or embryo XY/endosperm XY
C) embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XYY
D) embryo XX/endosperm XXX or embryo XY/endosperm XXY
E) embryo XY/endosperm XXX or embryo XX/endosperm XXY

Question 65

A fruit is

A) a mature ovary.
B) a mature ovule.
C) a seed plus its integuments.
D) a fused carpel.
E) an enlarged embryo sac.

Question 66

The pollen produced by wind-pollinated plants is often smaller than the pollen produced by animal-pollinated plants. A reason for this might be that

A) wind-pollinated plants, in general, are smaller than animal-pollinated plants.
B) wind-pollinated plants release pollen in the spring, before the plant has stored enough energy to make large pollen grains.
C) small pollen grains can be carried farther by the wind.
D) animal pollinators are more facile at picking up large pollen grains.
E) wind-pollinated flowers don't need large pollen grains because they don't have to attract animal pollinators.

Question 67

A small flower with green petals is most likely

A) bee-pollinated.
B) bird-pollinated.
C) bat-pollinated.
D) wind-pollinated.
E) moth-pollinated.

Question 68

The black dots that cover strawberries are actually individual fruits from a flower with multiple carpels. The fleshy and tasty portion of a strawberry derives from the receptacle of the flower. Therefore, a strawberry is

A) both a multiple fruit and an aggregate fruit.
B) both a multiple fruit and an accessory fruit.
C) both a simple fruit and an aggregate fruit.
D) both an aggregate fruit and an accessory fruit.
E) a simple fruit with many seeds.