Deck 38: Nervous and Sensory Systems

Question 1

The blood-brain barrier

A) filters the entry of solutes from the blood into the cerebrospinal fluid.
B) is formed by oligodendrocytes.
C) tightly regulates the intracellular environment of the CNS.
D) uses chemical signals to communicate with the spinal cord.
E) provides support to the brain tissue.

Answer 1

A

Question 2

The bottlenose dolphin breathes air but can sleep in the ocean because it

A) ceases breathing while sleeping and remains underwater.
B) sleeps for only 30 minutes at a time, the maximum interval for which it can cease breathing.
C) fills its swim bladder with air to keep its blowhole above the surface of the water while it sleeps.
D) moves to shallow water to sleep, so it does not need to swim to keep its blowhole above the surface of the water.
E) alternates which half of its brain is asleep and which half is awake.

Answer 2

E

Question 3

The unconscious control of respiration and circulation is associated with the

A) thalamus.
B) cerebellum.
C) medulla oblongata.
D) corpus callosum.
E) cerebrum.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Myelinated neurons are especially abundant in

A) the gray matter of the brain and the white matter of the spinal cord.
B) the white matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.
C) the gray matter of the brain and the gray matter of the spinal cord.
D) the white matter in the brain and the white matter in the spinal cord.

Question 5

Preparation for the fight-or-flight response includes activation of the ________ nervous system.

A) sympathetic
B) somatic
C) sensory
D) parasympathetic

Question 6

The endogenous nature of biological rhythms is based on the observation that animals isolated from light and dark cues

A) continue to have cycles of exactly 24 hours in duration.
B) continue to have cycles of approximately 24 hours in duration - some more rapid, some slower.
C) synchronize activity with whatever lighting cycle is imposed on them.
D) cease having any biological rhythms.
E) are independent of any genetic determinants.

Question 7

What nervous system components would you expect to find in a cephalized invertebrate such as a beetle?

A) a nerve net
B) nerve cords and transverse nerves
C) a brain, ventral nerve cords, and segmental ganglia
D) a brain, spinal cord, and sensory ganglia

Question 8

Choose the correct match of glial cell type and function.

A) astrocytes-metabolize neurotransmitters and modulate synaptic effectiveness
B) oligodendrocytes-produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the peripheral nervous system
C) microglia-produce the myelin sheaths of myelinated neurons in the central nervous system
D) radial glia-the source of immunoprotection against pathogens
E) Schwann cells-provide nutritional support to nonmyelinated neurons

Question 9

Increases and decreases of the heart rate result from changes in the activity of the

A) corpus callosum.
B) medulla oblongata.
C) thalamus.
D) pituitary.
E) cerebellum.

Question 10

Exercise and emergency reactions include

A) increased activity in all parts of the peripheral nervous system.
B) increased activity in the sympathetic division and decreased activity in the parasympathetic division.
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic division and increased activity in the parasympathetic division.
D) increased activity in the enteric nervous system.
E) reduced heart rate and blood pressure.

Question 11

Cephalization, the clustering of neurons and interneurons in the anterior part of the animal, is apparent in

A) Hydra.
B) cnidarians.
C) Planaria.
D) sea stars.

Question 12

The system that modulates excitation and inhibition of the smooth and cardiac muscles of the digestive, cardiovascular, and excretory systems is the

A) central nervous system.
B) motor system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) sensory system.

Question 13

Central coordination of the vertebrate biological clock resides in the

A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) thalamus.

Question 14

The divisions of the nervous system that have antagonistic, or opposing, actions are the

A) motor and sensory systems.
B) sympathetic and parasympathetic systems.
C) motor and sympathetic systems.
D) central nervous system and peripheral nervous system.

Question 15

Cerebrospinal fluid can be described as all of the following except

A) functioning in transport of nutrients and hormones through the brain.
B) a product of the filtration of blood in the brain.
C) formed from layers of connective tissue.
D) functioning to cushion the brain.
E) filling cavities in the brain called ventricles.

Question 16

Afferent neuronal systems include the

A) sensory systems.
B) entire peripheral nervous system.
C) autonomic nervous system.
D) parasympathetic nervous system.
E) sympathetic nervous system.

Question 17

The cerebrospinal fluid is

A) a filtrate of the blood.
B) a secretion of glial cells.
C) a secretion of interneurons.
D) cytosol secreted from ependymal cells.
E) a secretion of the hypothalamus.

Question 18

The telencephalon region of the developing brain of a mammal

A) develops as the neural tube differentiates.
B) develops from the midbrain.
C) is the brain region most like that of ancestral vertebrates.
D) gives rise to the cerebrum.
E) divides further into the metencephalon and myelencephalon.

Question 19

The activation of the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system is associated with

A) resting and digesting.
B) release of epinephrine into the blood.
C) increased metabolic rate.
D) fight-or-flight responses.
E) intensive aerobic exercise.

Question 20

Imagine you are resting comfortably on a sofa after dinner. This could be described as a state with

A) increased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.
B) decreased activity in the sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric nervous systems.
C) decreased activity in the sympathetic nervous system and increased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.
D) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system and decreased activity in the parasympathetic and enteric nervous systems.
E) increased activity in the sympathetic nervous system, decreased activity in the parasympathetic nervous system, and increased activity in the enteric nervous system.

Question 21

Choose the correct match of brain structure with one of its primary functions.

A) frontal lobe-decision making
B) occipital lobe-control of skeletal muscles
C) temporal lobe-visual processing
D) cerebellum-language comprehension
E) occipital lobe-speech production

Question 22

If you were writing an essay, the part of your brain that would be actively involved in this task would be

A) the temporal and frontal lobes.
B) the parietal lobe.
C) Broca's area.
D) Wernicke's area.
E) the occipital lobe.

Question 23

Hormones that are secreted by the posterior pituitary gland are made in the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 24

In mammals, advanced cognition is usually correlated with a large and very convoluted cerebral cortex, but birds are capable of sophisticated cognition because they have

A) a more advanced cerebellum.
B) a cerebellum with several flat layers.
C) a pallium with neurons clustered into nuclei.
D) microvilli to increase the brain's surface area.

Question 25

The regulatory centers for the respiratory and circulatory systems are found in the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 26

The coordination of groups of skeletal muscles is driven by activity in the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 27

Wernicke's and Broca's regions of the brain affect

A) olfaction.
B) vision.
C) language and speech.
D) memory.
E) hearing and balance.

Question 28

A researcher is interested in determining whether mice can remember the location of a piece of cheese in a maze. Which of the following would be the best experiment to perform to test the hypothesis that the limbic system is involved?

A) Place a healthy mouse and a mouse with a disrupted hippocampus in a maze and allow them to find the cheese in the center of the maze. Repeat the next day and measure the time it takes for the mice to find the cheese.
B) Place a healthy mouse and a mouse with a disrupted cerebellum in a maze and allow them to find the cheese in the center of the maze. Measure how long it took each mouse to find the cheese.
C) Perform an fMRI on a healthy mouse after allowing it to find the cheese in the center of the maze.
D) Place a mouse with a disrupted amygdala in the maze and allow it to find the cheese at the center of the maze. Repeat the next day, but this time put a bowl of water in the center of the maze and measure how long it takes the mouse to find the water.

Question 29

How does fMRI measure brain activity?

A) by measuring changes in oxygen concentration
B) by measuring changes in pressure
C) by measuring changes in blood flow
D) by measuring changes in temperature

Question 30

Wernicke's area

A) is active when speech is heard and comprehended.
B) is active during the generation of speech.
C) coordinates the response to olfactory sensation.
D) is active when you are reading silently.
E) is found on the right side of the brain.

Question 31

Short-term memory information processing usually causes changes in the

A) brainstem.
B) medulla.
C) hypothalamus.
D) hippocampus.

Question 32

Lysergic acid diethylamide (LSD) is a psychedelic drug that stimulates the reward pathway. Which of the following is a possible mechanism of how it affects neurons?

A) LSD molecules act as an agonist and bind to dopamine receptors.
B) LSD molecules block the release of dopamine from axon terminals.
C) LSD molecules catalyze the breakdown of dopamine in the synaptic cleft.
D) LSD molecules promote the reuptake of dopamine into the presynaptic neuron.

Question 33

The motor cortex is part of the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) spinal cord.
D) midbrain.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 34

Hunger and thirst are under the regulatory influence of the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 35

An organism that lacks neurons that perform integration

A) cannot receive stimuli.
B) will not have a nervous system.
C) will not be able to interpret stimuli.
D) can be expected to lack myelinated neurons.

Question 36

The suprachiasmatic nuclei are found in the

A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) epithalamus.
D) amygdala.
E) Broca's area.

Question 37

Calculation, contemplation, and cognition are human activities associated with increased activity in the

A) pituitary gland.
B) hypothalamus.
C) cerebrum.
D) cerebellum.
E) spinal cord.

Question 38

What would you expect to see in an fMRI analysis of person who is experiencing hunger?

A) large changes in oxygen concentration in the cerebellum
B) small changes in oxygen concentration in the limbic system
C) large changes in oxygen concentration in the hypothalamus
D) small changes in oxygen concentration in the cerebrum

Question 39

The regulation of body temperature derives from the activity of the

A) cerebrum.
B) cerebellum.
C) thalamus.
D) hypothalamus.
E) medulla oblongata.

Question 40

Which of the following structures are correctly paired?

A) forebrain and medulla oblongata
B) forebrain and cerebellum
C) midbrain and cerebrum
D) hindbrain and cerebellum
E) brainstem and anterior pituitary gland

Question 41

An earthworm without a statocyst would not be able to

A) move.
B) sense light.
C) hear.
D) orient with respect to gravity.
E) respond to touch.

Question 42

Choose the correct sequence of the following events leading to the sensory processing of a stimulus.
1) transmission
2) transduction
3) perception
4) adaptation

A) 1 → 2 → 3 → 4
B) 1 → 4 → 2 → 3
C) 2 → 1 → 3 → 4
D) 3 → 1 → 2 → 4
E) 2 → 1 → 4 → 3

Question 43

Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's capsaicin-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of

A) cold temperature.
B) hot temperature.
C) tactile stimulus.
D) odor of pepper.
E) deep pressure.

Question 44

Statocysts contain cells that are

A) mechanoreceptors used to detect orientation relative to gravity.
B) chemoreceptors used in selecting migration routes.
C) photoreceptors used in setting biological rhythms.
D) thermoreceptors used in prey detection.
E) chemoreceptors used in acid-base balance.

Question 45

Forming new long-term memories is strikingly disrupted after damage to the

A) thalamus.
B) hypothalamus.
C) hippocampus.
D) somatosensory cortex.
E) primary motor cortex.

Question 46

Stimuli alter the activity of excitable sensory cells via

A) integration.
B) transmission.
C) transduction.
D) amplification.

Question 47

Umami perception would be stimulated by

A) sugar water.
B) chocolate milk.
C) a savory and rich cheese.
D) acidic orange juice.
E) salt water.

Question 48

After earning an A in your biology course, your instructor gives you a firm handshake. You can feel the deep pressure of the handshake, and it is so strong it even starts to hurt a little. What type(s) of receptor was (were) activated by the handshake?

A) mechanoreceptors only
B) thermoreceptors only
C) nociceptors only
D) thermoreceptors and nociceptors
E) mechanoreceptors and nociceptors

Question 49

Artificial electrical stimulation of a human's menthol-sensitive neurons would likely produce the sensation of

A) cold temperature.
B) hot temperature.
C) tactile stimulus.
D) odor of pepper.
E) deep pressure.

Question 50

Tastes and smells are distinct kinds of environmental information in that

A) odorants are airborne and tastants are present in fluids.
B) humans can detect many more types of tastants than odorants.
C) distinguishing tastant molecules requires learning, whereas smell discrimination is an innate process.
D) odorants bind to receptor proteins, but none of the tastant stimuli will bind to receptors.

Question 51

A given photon of light may trigger an action potential with thousands of times more energy because the signal strength is magnified by

A) the receptor.
B) an enzyme-catalyzed reaction.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) triggering several receptors at once.

Question 52

A ligand for the umami receptor in the sense of taste is

A) glucose.
B) sodium ions.
C) potassium ions.
D) hydrogen ions.
E) monosodium glutamate.

Question 53

A researcher is interested in determining whether mice can remember the location of a piece of cheese in a maze. Which of the following results best supports the hypothesis that mice can remember the location of the cheese?

A) an increase in the number of synapses between neurons in the hippocampus
B) an increase in the number of synapses between neurons in the hypothalamus
C) a decrease in the number of synapses between neurons in the hypothalamus
D) a decrease in the number of synapses between neurons in the hippocampus

Question 54

The olfactory bulbs are located in the

A) nasal cavity.
B) anterior pituitary gland.
C) posterior pituitary gland.
D) brain.
E) brainstem.

Question 55

Proteins coded by a very large family of related genes are active in the sensory transduction of

A) gustatory stimuli.
B) olfactory stimuli.
C) visual stimuli.
D) auditory stimuli.

Question 56

The correct sequence of sensory processing is

A) sensory adaptation → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception.
B) stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory perception → sensory adaptation.
C) sensory perception → stimulus reception → sensory transduction → sensory adaptation.
D) sensory perception → sensory transduction → stimulus reception → sensory adaptation.
E) stimulus reception → sensory perception → sensory adaptation → sensory transduction.

Question 57

Immediately after putting on a shirt, your skin might feel itchy. However, this perception soon fades due to

A) sensory adaptation.
B) accommodation.
C) the increase of transduction.
D) reduced motor unit recruitment.
E) reduced receptor amplification.

Question 58

The generation of action potentials in olfactory neurons initiated by odors drawn into the nasal cavity is an example of

A) perception.
B) sensory transduction.
C) sensory adaptation.
D) amplification.

Question 59

When Phineas Gage had a metal rod driven into his frontal lobe, he experienced

A) loss of the ability to reason.
B) loss of all short-term memory.
C) greatly altered emotional responses.
D) loss of all long-term memory.
E) loss of his sense of balance.

Question 60

An injury to the occipital lobe will likely impair the function of the

A) primary visual cortex.
B) thalamus.
C) optic chiasma.
D) sense of taste.
E) sense of touch.

Question 61

The pathway leading to the perception of sound by mammals begins with the

A) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the basilar membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane.
B) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the tympanic membrane, coming in contact with the tectorial membrane.
C) hair cells of the organ of Corti, which rests on the tectorial membrane, coming in contact with the basilar membrane.
D) hair cells of the organ of Corti coming in contact with the tectorial membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window.
E) hair cells on the tympanic membrane as a result of fluid waves in the cochlea causing vibrations in the round window.

Question 62

Sound waves arriving at a listener first strike the

A) tectorial membrane.
B) tympanic membrane.
C) hair cell membrane.
D) basilar membrane.

Question 63

Dizziness is a perceived sensation that can occur when

A) the hair cells in the cochlea move more than their normal limits.
B) moving fluid in the semicircular canals encounters a stationary cupula.
C) the basilar membrane makes physical contact with the tectorial membrane.
D) the utricle is horizontal but the saccule is vertical.

Question 64

The perceived pitch of a sound depends on

A) which part of the tympanic membrane is being vibrated by sound waves.
B) which part of the oval window produces waves in the cochlear fluid.
C) which region of the basilar membrane was set in motion.
D) whether or not the sound moves the incus, malleus, and stapes.

Question 65

The cochlea is an organ of auditory transduction that contains

A) fluid and cells that can undergo mechanosensory transduction.
B) air and cells that produce wax.
C) air and small bones that vibrate in response to sound waves.
D) fluid with stacks of chemosensory cells.
E) air and statocysts activated by movement.

Question 66

Sensory transduction of light/dark information in the vertebrate retina is accomplished by

A) ganglion cells.
B) amacrine cells.
C) bipolar cells.
D) horizontal cells.
E) rods and cones.

Question 67

While on an African safari, you squint into the distance in order to get a better view of an elephant. What is happening in your eye to allow you to focus on the elephant?

A) The iris is opening to allow more light into the pupil.
B) The iris is closing to allow less light into the pupil.
C) The lens is becoming flatter.
D) The lens is becoming more spherical.

Question 68

Rods exposed to light will

A) depolarize due to the opening of sodium channels.
B) hyperpolarize due to the closing of sodium channels.
C) depolarize due to the opening of potassium channels.
D) hyperpolarize due to the closing of potassium channels.

Question 69

Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the hypothalamus?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 70

Raccoons are most active from dusk until dawn. What kinds of cells would you expect to find in the retina of a raccoon?

A) a high density of cones at the fovea
B) an equal mixture of cones and rods
C) three or more types of cones in large quantities
D) many more rods than cones

Question 71

Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the olfactory bulb?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 72

Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the thalamus?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 73

A patient has been diagnosed with a tumor that has destroyed the center of her optic chiasm. How has this affected her vision?

A) She is blind.
B) She can only see out of her left eye.
C) She can only see out of her right eye.
D) She has a limited field of view in each eye.
E) She has normal vision.

Question 74

A rod exposed to light will

A) undergo a graded depolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.
B) undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will increase its release of glutamate.
C) undergo a graded depolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.
D) undergo a graded hyperpolarization that will decrease its release of glutamate.

Question 75

Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the amygdala?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 76

In the human retina

A) cone cells can detect color, but rod cells cannot.
B) cone cells are more sensitive than rod cells to light.
C) cone cells, but not rod cells, have a visual pigment.
D) rod cells are most highly concentrated in the center of the retina.
E) rod cells require higher illumination for stimulation than do cone cells.

Question 77

It can be very difficult to select an angle for sneaking up to a grasshopper to catch it because grasshoppers have

A) excellent hearing for detecting predators.
B) compound eyes with multiple ommatidia.
C) eyes with multiple fovea.
D) a camera-like eye with a single fovea.

Question 78

The sand grains or other dense materials resting on mechanoreceptors used by most invertebrates to sense gravity are called

A) cochlea.
B) statoliths.
C) otoliths.
D) pinnae.

Question 79

Figure 38.1
In Figure 38.1, which letter points to the hippocampus?

A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D
E) E

Question 80

The cellular membrane across which ion flow varies during auditory transduction is the

A) tectorial membrane.
B) tympanic membrane.
C) hair cell membrane.
D) basilar membrane.