Deck 9: Reproductive Strategies

Question 1

Asexual reproduction

A) occurs when offspring are produced by two parents without copulation.
B) occurs when offspring are produced by and receive genetic material from only one parent.
C) occurs when offspring are produced by and receive genetic material from both parents.
D) is accomplished only via parthenogenesis.
E) is accomplished only via vegetative reproduction.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which describes a plant with perfect flowers?

A) An individual plant whose flowers contain either female structures or male structures but not both.
B) An individual plant with flowers that contain female structures and flowers that contain male structures.
C) An individual plant whose flowers contain neither female nor male structures.
D) An individual plant whose flowers contain both female and male structures.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

In sexual reproduction, meiosis produces _____ cells from one parent that join with _____ cells from the other parent to form a _____ zygote.

A) haploid; diploid; diploid
B) haploid; haploid; diploid
C) diploid; diploid; haploid
D) haploid; diploid; haploid
E) diploid; diploid; diploid

Answer 3

B

Question 4

Plant species with separate male and female flowers on the same individual are called ???_____, and plant species with only male or female flowers on an individual are called _____.

A) dioecious; monoecious
B) monoecious; dioecious
C) hermaphrodites; perfect
D) simultaneous hermaphrodites; sequential hermaphrodites

Question 5

In honeybees, drones arise from _____ eggs, and workers arise from _____ eggs.

A) diploid; fertilized haploid
B) unfertilized haploid; diploid
C) unfertilized haploid; fertilized haploid
D) fertilized haploid; unfertilized haploid

Question 6

What process produces gametes for sexual reproduction?

A) mitosis
B) binary fission
C) clonal duplication
D) meiosis
E) parthenogenesis

Question 7

An individual that uses its male gametes to fertilize its female gametes is reproducing through

A) outcrossing.
B) self-fertilization.
C) cloning.
D) parthenogenesis.

Question 8

Hermaphrodism is

A) rare in species that engage in brood care.
B) common in mobile aquatic animals.
C) common in species that actively seek mates.
D) rare in flowering plants.

Question 9

Evolution favours hermaphrodism when fitness of the hermaphrodite is _____ fitness of the _____.

A) less than; male
B) less than; female
C) less than; male or female
D) greater than; male or female
E) equal to; male or female

Question 10

Which statement best describes the cost of meiosis?

A) Production of haploid gametes for sexual reproduction has a higher energy cost than direct production of diploid offspring.
B) Males pass on only 75 percent of their genetic material through sexual reproduction rather than 100 percent through asexual reproduction.
C) Sexual reproduction puts individuals at greater risk for predation.
D) Females pass on only 50 percent of their DNA through sexual reproduction rather than 100 percent through asexual reproduction.
E) Sexual reproduction results in fewer offspring than asexual reproduction.

Question 11

An organism starts out its life as female but later changes into a male. This is an example of

A) sequential hermaphrodism.
B) simultaneous hermaphrodism.
C) monoecism.
D) dioecism.

Question 12

Scientists have confirmed a rare case of a virgin female hammerhead shark giving birth to offspring that were genetically identical to the mother. What process accounts for this phenomenon?

A) binary fission
B) clonal reproduction
C) vegetative reproduction
D) parthenogenesis

Question 13

Reproduction in which offspring receive genetic material from two parents is called

A) asexual reproduction.
B) parthenogenesis.
C) vegetative reproduction.
D) sexual reproduction.
E) binary fission.

Question 14

Which statement best describes the Red Queen hypothesis?

A) Asexual selection allows organisms to increase survival by keeping up with the evolution of parasites.
B) Sexual selection allows organisms to increase survival by keeping up with the evolution of parasites.
C) Parasites evolve at such a rapid a rate that organisms cannot evolve countermeasures.
D) Organisms are able to survive parasites because they evolve at a more rapid rate than parasites.

Question 15

Clones are offspring produced _____ and have the same _____ as the parent.

A) sexually; phenotype
B) sexually; genotype
C) asexually; phenotype
D) asexually; genotype

Question 16

Which of the following is NOT a mechanism by which organisms can purge deleterious mutations?

A) random assortment in meiosis
B) production of homozygous recessive nonviable offspring
C) random assortment in mitosis
D) production of offspring without the mutation

Question 17

Production of offspring from the nonsexual tissues of a parent is called

A) mitosis.
B) binary fission.
C) clonal duplication.
D) vegetative reproduction.
E) parthenogenesis.

Question 18

All of the following are benefits of sexual reproduction EXCEPT that

A) mutations are more likely to be purged.
B) offspring are more likely to possess traits to help cope with future environmental challenges.
C) offspring are likely to have greater fitness than asexually produced offspring.
D) offspring are better able to fight the evolutionary arms race.

Question 19

Lions have been hunting gazelles in the savannahs of Africa for hundreds of thousands of years. Over time both gazelles and lions have incrementally increased their speed. What might be occurring? What hypothesis could explain this phenomenon?

Question 20

Parthenogenesis occurs when offspring are produced

A) from a parent's gonad tissue.
B) by a cell dividing into two identical cells.
C) from an unfertilized embryo.
D) from a parent's nonsexual tissue.
E) clonally.

Question 21

In some perfect flowers, the receptiveness of the stigma is delayed until after its anthers have released pollen. This delay prevents

A) outcrossing.
B) self-incompatibility.
C) parthenogenesis.
D) self-fertilization.

Question 22

Which of the following is NOT a genetic mechanism for sex determination?

A) There are two sex chromosomes, W and Z, and ZZ results in a male and ZW results in a female.
B) Fertilized eggs develop into females, and unfertilized eggs develop into males.
C) Eggs incubated at higher temperatures develop into females, and eggs incubated at lower temperatures develop into males.
D) Individuals with two sex chromosomes are female, and individuals with one sex chromosome are male.

Question 23

Which of these terms describes a general mating system in which individuals mate with multiple partners without a lasting social bond?

A) polyandry
B) promiscuity
C) polygamy
D) polygyny
E) monogamy

Question 24

Salmon reproduce when many males and females release large quantities of their gametes into a stream. This process, spawning, is a type of

A) monogamy.
B) polyandry.
C) promiscuity.
D) polygyny.

Question 25

Organisms can avoid self-fertilization by

A) sequential hermaphrodism.
B) simultaneous hermaphrodism.
C) cloning.
D) binary fission.

Question 26

In genetic sex determination, if a genotype of XX is female and XY is male, what will be the natural percentage of female offspring?

A) 25
B) 75
C) 50
D) 80

Question 27

Topics: Reproduction can be sexual or asexual. Organisms can evolve as separate sexes or as hermaphrodites.
Over many decades, how might the presence of pathogens influence the proportion of individuals in a plant population that reproduce by self-fertilization versus the proportion that reproduce by outcrossing? Why would pathogens cause this outcome?

Question 28

An animal begins its life as a female. Later the dominant male dies and the female changes sex to become male. This is an example of

A) environmental sex determination.
B) frequency-dependent selection.
C) genetic sex determination.
D) frequency-independent selection.

Question 29

Female red deer (Cervus elaphus) of different ages were found to give birth to fawns of differing sex ratios by means of

A) temperature-dependent sex determination.
B) frequency-dependent selection.
C) local mate competition.
D) selective abortion.

Question 30

Which type of mating strategy is most likely to result in self-fertilization?

A) sequential hermaphrodite
B) simultaneous hermaphrodite
C) dioecious plant
D) binary fission

Question 31

Natural selection favouring the rarer sex in a population leads to evolution of sex ratios. This process is the result of

A) environmental sex determination.
B) frequency-dependent selection.
C) genetic sex determination.
D) frequency-independent selection.

Question 32

Females of American crocodiles (Crocodylus acutus) produce on average 50 eggs. Consider one population composed of 13 females and 7 males and another population composed of 9 females and 11 males. Use the number of gene copies for females and males to determine the female and male fitness of each population. Predict what will happen over time to the sex ratio of each population.

Question 33

In most species, what process is responsible for sex ratios of approximately 1:1?

A) genetic sex determination
B) frequency-dependent selection
C) environmental sex determination
D) selective abortion

Question 34

One of the downsides of selfing in hermaphrodites is inbreeding depression. How does inbreeding depression impair fitness?

Question 35

Scientists have demonstrated that as herbivory on orange jewelweed (Impatiens capensis) flowers increases, the proportion of selfing to outcrossing flowers increases. This occurs because

A) herbivores prefer the nectar of outcrossing flowers because of their increased sugar content.
B) the plant requires rapid reproduction to compensate for biomass loss due to herbivory.
C) selfing flowers contain more phenolics and tannins that herbivores avoid.
D) the loss of resources due to herbivory causes plants to make less expensive selfing flowers.

Question 36

What is the most common factor in environmental sex determination?

A) pH
B) ambient light level
C) humidity
D) temperature

Question 37

Why might an organism self-fertilize rather than outcross?

A) Self-fertilization reduces inbreeding depression.
B) Self-fertilization produces more viable offspring than outcrossing.
C) Attracting mates is expensive.
D) Self-fertilization produces more offspring than outcrossing.

Question 38

Some species of anglerfish have a unique mating strategy. Males are significantly smaller than females, and early in development they permanently attach to females. A female usually has multiple males attached, and when the female is ready to reproduce, one of the attached males provides sperm for fertilization. This mating strategy is an example of

A) polyandry.
B) promiscuity.
C) polygyny.
D) monogamy.

Question 39

When researchers studied sex ratios in red deer (Cervus elaphus), they found that yearling females selectively aborted male offspring because

A) males were more expensive to raise.
B) males were less reproductively valuable.
C) males required longer gestation periods.
D) males required longer periods of parental care.

Question 40

Fig wasp populations contain a high proportion of females to males because of local mate competition. This occurs because

A) most of the females do not mate, so fewer males are required.
B) a large number of females can mate with a single male.
C) females reproduce asexually, which does not require males.
D) higher temperatures inside figs result in mostly female offspring.

Question 41

Why is monogamy more frequently seen in birds than mammals?

Question 42

Which mating system do honeybees employ?

A) monogamy
B) polygyny
C) promiscuity
D) polyandry

Question 43

According to the handicap principle, in an honest signal the perceived advantage linked to the disadvantageous trait is

A) directly beneficial to the female.
B) genetically linked to the sexual trait.
C) inherited by offspring.
D) not inherited by offspring.

Question 44

What is the main difference between polygyny and polyandry?

A) Both are forms of polygamy; polygyny occurs when one male mates with multiple females, and polyandry occurs when one female mates with multiple males.
B) Both are forms of polygamy; polygyny occurs when one male mates with multiple females, and polyandry occurs when one female mates with multiple males.
C) Polyandry involves the establishment of long-term social bond, whereas polygany does not.
D) Polygany always involves one male with multiple females, whereas polyandry can involve one female with multiple males.
E) Polyandry and polygany are the same mating system.

Question 45

Sexual traits that are disadvantageous to male survival may be attractive to a female because they suggest the male possesses a superior genotype to counteract the disadvantageous trait. This is known as

A) runaway sexual selection.
B) the handicap principle.
C) the good genes hypothesis.
D) the good health hypothesis.

Question 46

Why might female widow birds (Euplectes progne) chose males with longer tails even though there are no material benefits to long tails?

A) Long tails in males might indicate a good genetic composition (good genes hypothesis).
B) Long tails in males might indicate good overall health of males (good health hypothesis).
C) Both a and b are possible.
D) Neither a nor b is possible.

Question 47

Scientists have found that offspring of male tree frogs with long calls spend more time feeding and grow faster than offspring of male tree frogs with short calls. This supports

A) the good health hypothesis.
B) the good genes hypothesis.
C) the concept of runaway sexual selection.
D) the handicap principle.

Question 48

Which of the following traits would NOT be considered a material benefit?

A) quality nesting site
B) ability to defend territory
C) long tail feathers
D) territory with abundant food

Question 49

What is the main difference between promiscuity and polygamy?

A) Polygamy entails the establishment of a long-term social bond, whereas promiscuity does not.
B) Promiscuity entails the establishment of a long-term social bond, whereas polygamy does not.
C) Polygamy always involves one male with multiple females, whereas promiscuity can involve one female with multiple males.
D) Promiscuity and polygamy are the same mating system.

Question 50

Which partner in a monogamous relationship might participate in extra-pair copulation?

A) paired females
B) paired males
C) paired males and paired females
D) unpaired males and females

Question 51

The evolution of physical traits of males to attract females or to compete with other males to mate with females is known as

A) sexual dimorphism.
B) sexual selection.
C) sexual polymorphism.
D) mate guarding.

Question 52

Which is NOT a benefit of extra-pair copulation?

A) increased fitness of offspring due to better genotype
B) increased fitness of extra male due to increased numbers of offspring
C) increased fitness of monogamous female due to greater fitness of offspring
D) increased fitness of monogamous male due to less energy expended on reproduction

Question 53

Which of the following is a secondary sexual characteristic?

A) testicles of males
B) mammary tissues of females
C) fallopian tubes of females
D) tusks of male elephants

Question 54

Mate guarding is selected for as a result of extra-pair copulation in

A) polygyny.
B) polyandry.
C) polygamy.
D) monogamy.

Question 55

Which of the following is a primary sexual characteristic?

A) testicles of males
B) large size of female spiders compared with males
C) antlers in male caribou
D) male birds having more colourful feathers than females
E) manes of male lions

Question 56

Spermatophores are often involved in

A) promiscuity.
B) polygyny.
C) polyandry.
D) monogamy.

Question 57

The male golden orb-weaving spider (Nephila clavipes) dies while still joined with the female following copulation. This is an example of

A) extra-pair copulation.
B) mate guarding.
C) monogamy.
D) the handicap principle.

Question 58

A peacock is significantly more colourful than a peahen and has a much larger tail. These traits allow the peacock to attract a mate but also make the peacock more visible to predators. This is an example of

A) runaway sexual selection.
B) sexual conflict.
C) the handicap principle.
D) the good genes hypothesis.

Question 59

Which organisms are most likely to form monogamous relationships?

A) mammals
B) birds
C) insects
D) reptiles

Question 60

Which is TRUE about monogamy?

A) Insects often form monogamous relationships because males provide significant parental care to offspring.
B) Monogamous relationships are most beneficial when males provide significant parental care to offspring.
C) Animals in monogamous relationships do not mate outside of the relationship.
D) Birds rarely form monogamous relationships because offspring require less parental care.

Question 61

In ring-necked pheasants (Phasianus colchicus), long spurs on the lower legs of males are genetically linked to a gene that influences the bird's susceptibility to disease. This is called

A) an honest signal.
B) a true signal.
C) the handicap principle.
D) the good health hypothesis.

Question 62

When researchers experimentally altered tail lengths of male widow birds (Euplectes progne), they found that females chose males with longer tails even when tail length did not correlate with any tangible benefit to a male's ability to defend territory. What are two possible reasons that females prefer longer tails?

Question 63

Infanticide by a new dominant male lion confers which primary benefit to the dominant male?

A) Resources are not spent on cubs not related to the dominant male.
B) The dominant male does not have to care for unrelated cubs.
C) The aggressiveness of the act establishes the male's dominance in the pack.
D) Female lions are ready to breed again sooner when they are not caring for cubs.

Question 64

Topics: Sex ratios of offspring are typically balanced, but they can be modified by natural selection; mating systems describe the pattern of mating between males and females.
You discover a new species of wasp with females that lay their eggs inside tree branches. Although the tree material is not a good source of nutrients, the offspring are well protected and are seldom consumed by predators. After the eggs hatch, only the females possess the mouthparts needed to chew through the wood and escape. All of the males die in the nest. However, because the wasps cannot digest and obtain nutrients from the wood, the young females must obtain the strength necessary for eating their way out of the branch by ingesting spermatophores (small packets containing sperm and nutrients) that each male releases in the nest. These spermatophores also fertilize the females. Once a male releases his spermatophore, he dies. Although the spermatophores contain nutrients, the likelihood that a female will escape the nest is highly positively correlated with the number of spermatophores that she ingests.
In this wasp species, would you predict a sex ratio bias? Explain why or why not. Would this mating system be classified as promiscuity, polygyny, polyandry, or monogamy?

Question 65

Why has the microbe Wolbachia evolved mechanisms to alter the sex ratio of fruit flies and mosquitos?

A) Wolbachia is passed only through infected eggs.
B) Wolbachia reproduce only in males.
C) Females are more susceptible to Wolbachia than males.
D) Males are more susceptible to Wolbachia than females.