Deck 16: Adaptive Immunity

Question 1

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

A) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant.
B) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function.
C) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.
D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.
E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

The type of immunoglobulin that forms a pentamer is

A) IgE.
B) IgG.
C) IgA.
D) IgM.
E) IgD.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

Which of the following statements about T lymphocytes is FALSE?

A) There are fewer types of T cell receptors than B cell receptors, and therefore the T lymphocyte cannot react with as many types of antigens.
B) T lymphocytes directly attack antigens and produce the cell-mediated immune response.
C) T lymphocytes are called such because they mature in the thymus.
D) T lymphocytes have TCRs that recognize antigen only if it is bound to MHC.
E) There are three types of T lymphocytes.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Under normal situations, the lymphocytes do not develop an immune response against autoantigens because

A) antibodies produced against autoantigens are destroyed.
B) they never have binding sites that are complimentary to autoantigens.
C) they identify cells with autoantigens as belonging to the body and do not attack them.
D) antibodies prevent them from binding to the body's own cells.
E) lymphocytes that bind to autoantigens undergo apoptosis.

Question 5

Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they

A) have unique light chains.
B) are Y-shaped molecules.
C) are present in the plasma.
D) are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers.
E) are present in lymph nodes.

Question 6

The most prevalent type of antibody in the blood is

A) IgD.
B) IgM.
C) IgA.
D) IgG.
E) IgE.

Question 7

You step on something in the yard and get a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the

A) appendix.
B) lymph nodes of the groin.
C) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical).
D) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla).
E) spleen.

Question 8

Which of the following produces an exogenous antigen?

A) a bacterium inside a cell
B) a virus inside a cell
C) a bacterium outside a cell
D) a noninfected human cell
E) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell

Question 9

Antigens are

A) specific molecules, or parts of molecules, that the body recognizes as foreign.
B) proteins the body produces against invading substances.
C) cells that protect the body against invaders.
D) proteins on the surface of our cells that pathogens attach to.
E) enzymes secreted to destroy a pathogen's cell wall.

Question 10

Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?

A) growth factors
B) interferons
C) interleukins
D) tumor necrosis factors
E) chemokines

Question 11

Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE?

A) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells.
B) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx).
C) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.
D) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes.
E) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming large aggregates.

Question 12

Large accumulations of young self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in

A) the MALT.
B) lymph nodes.
C) the thymus.
D) the MALT and lymph nodes.
E) the MALT, lymph nodes, and thymus.

Question 13

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE?

A) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen.
B) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter.
C) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen-binding sites.
D) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR.
E) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 10¹¹ different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.

Question 14

Which of the following function in agglutination?

A) IgA antibodies
B) IgG antibodies
C) IgE antibodies
D) IgD antibodies
E) IgA and IgG antibodies

Question 15

The humoral immune response is attributed to the action of

A) monocytes.
B) T lymphocytes.
C) B lymphocytes.
D) neutrophils.
E) macrophages.

Question 16

The designation "B" for B lymphocytes comes from the

A) fact that these cells produce antibodies.
B) bone marrow where these cells mature.
C) fact that these cells are most abundant in the blood..
D) ability of these cells to provide immunity through bodily fluids.
E) sequence in which these lymphocytes where discovered.

Question 17

Which of the following is NOT included in the MALT?

A) the appendix
B) the spleen
C) Peyer's patches
D) lymphoid tissue in the respiratory tract
E) lymphoid tissue in the small intestine

Question 18

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

A) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs.
B) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope.
C) Lymphocytes have integral surface glycoproteins by which they can be recognized.
D) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for "cluster of differentiation."
E) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes.

Question 19

The F_c portion of an antibody is formed by

A) the lower portions of the heavy chains.
B) the upper portions of the heavy chains.
C) the upper portions of the light chains.
D) the lower portions of the light chains.
E) one light chain and one heavy chain.

Question 20

Which of the following statements concerning the chemical structure of an antibody is FALSE?

A) Antibodies are formed of four polypeptide chains.
B) Antibodies have two long peptide chains known as heavy chains.
C) Antibodies have two short peptide chains known as light chains.
D) The stem and arm are connected by a hinge.
E) The heavy and light chains are connected by hydrogen bonds.

Question 21

Enhanced immune responses to subsequent exposures to an antigen to which the body has already been exposed are known as

A) third-degree immune responses.
B) allergic responses.
C) primary immune responses.
D) memory responses.
E) autoimmune responses.

Question 22

Which of the following is the function of growth factors?

A) cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate
B) activate complement
C) stimulate phagocytes
D) chemotaxis of leukocytes
E) ensure production of enough leukocytes

Question 23

Major histocompatibility antigens are

A) antigens that provoke allergic reactions.
B) antigens that must be processed by cells called histiocytes in order to be recognized by the immune system.
C) antigens attached to foreign invaders.
D) glycoproteins found in the cytoplasmic membranes of most vertebrate animal cells.
E) not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens.

Question 24

Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC II antigens and helps stabilize the binding of antigenic determinants to T cell receptors?

A) CCR3
B) MHC I
C) CD26
D) CD4
E) CCR5

Question 25

Which of the following molecules would contain T-independent antigens?

A) phospholipids
B) lipoproteins
C) polysaccharides
D) glycoproteins
E) steroids

Question 26

Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is true?

A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated.
B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target.
C) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
D) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide.
E) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells.

Question 27

Which of the following is the function of gamma interferon (INF-γ)?

A) activates complement
B) stimulates phagocytes
C) ensures production of enough leukocytes
D) activates and differentiates B lymphocytes
E) causes basophils and eosinophils to degranulate

Question 28

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person gets a disease?

A) innate immunity
B) naturally acquired passive immunity
C) artificially acquired active immunity
D) artificially acquired passive immunity
E) naturally acquired active immunity

Question 29

Which of the following statements concerning specific immunity is FALSE?

A) It is the third line of defense.
B) It has memory.
C) It changes little with repeated exposure to the same pathogen.
D) It is acquired.
E) It is the body's ability to respond to specific invading pathogens.

Question 30

Class II MHC (major histocompatibility antigens) are found on

A) the skin.
B) red blood cells.
C) cytoplasmic membranes of nucleated cells.
D) muscle.
E) professional antigen-presenting cells.

Question 31

The immunological synapse refers to the

A) interaction between a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell to produce a specialized contact area for communication between these cells.
B) activation of a B cell to become a plasma cell.
C) interaction between lymphocytes and foreign antigens to produce memory cells.
D) binding of a monocyte or macrophage to antigen so that it can act as an antigen-presenting cell.
E) interaction of the many cytokines produced by different immunological cells.

Question 32

What is the role of interleukins?

A) chemotaxis of leukocytes
B) production of virally infected cells
C) ensuring production of enough leukocytes
D) signaling between leukocytes
E) complement activation

Question 33

Which of the following is true of chemokines?

A) They ensure production of enough leukocytes.
B) They are involved in B lymphocyte activation and differentiation.
C) They are involved in chemotaxis of leukocytes.
D) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.
E) They are substances used to signal between leukocytes.

Question 34

The perforin-granzyme pathway involves

A) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen.
B) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen.
C) the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells.
D) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells.
E) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis.

Question 35

Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is FALSE?

A) They live a long time and function as memory cells.
B) They are activated B cells.
C) They produce 2000 antibodies per second.
D) They secrete antibody molecules with antigen-determining sites that act only against specific antigen determinants.
E) The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for years.

Question 36

The major histocompatibility antigens are coded for by genes on which chromosome number?

A) 3
B) 16
C) 6
D) 12
E) 21

Question 37

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

A) the child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza.
B) the child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.
C) the child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections.
D) the child has neither influenza nor RSV.
E) the results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.

Question 38

Which of the following statements about helper T cells is FALSE?

A) They secrete messenger proteins called cytokines.
B) They are sometimes called T4 cells.
C) There are two types: Th1 and Th2.
D) They cannot be distinguished from other T lymphocytes.
E) They function in conjunction with B cells.

Question 39

Which of the following is true of interferons?

A) They are produced by virally infected cells.
B) They are involved in B lymphocyte activation and differentiation.
C) They are involved in chemotaxis of leukocytes.
D) They are substances used to signal between leukocytes.
E) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.

Question 40

The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because

A) red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen.
B) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs.
C) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents.
D) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs.
E) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue.

Question 41

IgE antibodies are best described as

A) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation.
B) the antibody found in body secretions.
C) those involved in complement activation.
D) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC).
E) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.

Question 42

IgA antibodies are best described as

A) those involved in complement activation.
B) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation.
C) the antibody found in body secretions.
D) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC).
E) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.

Question 43

Which of the following best describes IgG antibodies?

A) most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response
B) the antibody found in body secretions
C) cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate
D) complement activation
E) unknown function

Question 44

IgG antibodies have a variety of mechanisms for acting on antigens.

Question 45

Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors.

Question 46

The variable regions from the light and heavy chains of a(n) __________ combine to form antigen-binding sites.

Question 47

Large molecules such as polymers make good antigens.

Question 48

The body recognizes antigens by the three dimensional shapes of regions known as __________ determinants.

Question 49

An antigen produced by a pathogen while living inside a cell is known as a(n) __________ antigen.

Question 50

The MALT lacks the tough outer capsule of a lymph node but functions in the same way.

Question 51

IgG is the most common class of antibodies in the blood.

Question 52

The ability of the body to recognize its own __________ is called self-tolerance.

Question 53

During an infection with Listeria, an intracellular parasite, APCs will present antigen on MHC II molecules.

Question 54

Under normal conditions, __________ takes place when a lymphocyte binds to an autoantigen.

Question 55

Molecules with a molecular mass less than 5000 daltons can become antigens when they bind to carrier molecules.

Question 56

When a T cell's CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell, antibodies are formed.

Question 57

Which of the following is associated with interleukin 4 (IL-4)?

A) produced by virally infected cells
B) B lymphocyte activation and differentiation
C) ensures production of enough leukocytes
D) stimulates phagocytes
E) chemotaxis of leukocytes

Question 58

Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies?

A) cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate
B) most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response
C) the antibody found in body secretions
D) B lymphocyte activation and differentiation
E) ensure production of enough leukocytes

Question 59

A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants.

Question 60

Secretory IgA and the IgA in the blood have the same chemical composition.

Question 61

A natural killer lymphocyte detects the Fc region of an antibody bound to a cell and responds by releasing __________ and granzyme.

Question 62

When a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell interact, a specialized contact called a(n) __________ synapse forms between them.

Question 63

An APC presents antigen to an unactivated T lymphocyte on an MHC I molecule and secretes IL-12 at the same time. As a result the T lymphocyte __________ into a Th1 lymphocyte.

Question 64

A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of epitopes by antibody molecules, T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules, and describe the consequences of the different interactions.

Question 65

Discuss the basic structure of the antibody molecule.

Question 66

Compare and contrast clonal deletion and clonal selection of B lymphocytes.

Question 67

Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and __________ cells.

Question 68

Describe the mechanisms of action of antibodies.

Question 69

What are the steps involved in B cell activation?

Question 70

B lymphocytes can bind directly to large antigents with repeating polysaccharide subunits, such as a bacterial capsule that has antigenic determinants known as T-independent __________.

Question 71

A __________ immune response occurs when an APC binds to a Th2 lymphocyte and releases IL-1.

Question 72

The process of __________ deletion removes lymphocytes that react to autoantigens.

Question 73

Antigen processing is required for helper T cells to bind __________.

Question 74

The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies of __________.

Question 75

TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore, __________ molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response. (Be sure to use capital letters.)