Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ Necessarily Be the Same for a Given

Multiple Choice

Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?

A) Yes, because the number of viruses that infect 50% of a test population should also kill 50% of that test population.
B) No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID₅₀ value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD₅₀ value) . A prime example of this is the rhinovirus (common cold virus) .
C) No, because very few viruses are lethal, yet many are highly infectious. The 2 values should ALWAYS be different.
D) Yes, because what we're actually describing here is infection/killing of individual CELLS, not of entire organisms. If a cell is infected, it will always be killed.