Multiple Choice
Which of the following is a plausible explanation for a downward shift in the consumption function?
A) A decline in home values
B) A decline in wages
C) A decrease in the personal income tax rate
D) A rise in wages
Correct Answer:
Verified
Correct Answer:
Verified
Related Questions
Q23: As part of the "wealth channel of
Q24: In the Keynesian model, if interest rates
Q25: In the Keynesian view, the main source
Q26: An increase in the money supply in
Q27: As part of the "wealth channel of
Q29: If consumption equals $1,000 when income is
Q30: In the Keynesian model, if interest rates
Q31: _ consumption will _ as a result
Q32: If autonomous investment spending falls as a
Q33: According to Keynes, it is _ to