Is Conditioned Taste Aversion in Any Way an Exception of Sorts

Multiple Choice

Is conditioned taste aversion in any way an exception of sorts to the general principles of classical conditioning? If so, how?

A) No, it is not an exception - it is simply another illustration of the generality of the principles of classical conditioning.
B) Yes, it is an exception - conditioned taste aversions require more trials to acquire than do most CRs.
C) Yes, it is an exception - conditioned taste aversions require a shorter interval between the CS and the response for their acquisition than do most CRs.
D) Yes, it is an exception -- conditioned taste aversions often require only a single CS-UCS pairing, rather than several pairings, for their acquisition.