Would ID50 and LD50 Necessarily Be the Same for a Given

Multiple Choice

Would ID50 and LD50 necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?

A) Yes, because the number of viruses that infect 50% of a test population should also kill 50% of that test population.
B) No, because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID50 value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD50 value) , for example the rhinovirus (common cold virus) .
C) No, because very few viruses are lethal, yet many are highly infectious. The two values should ALWAYS be different.
D) Yes, because what we're actually describing here is the infection/ killing of individual cells, not of entire organisms. If a cell is infected, it will always be killed.
E) Yes, because ID50 and LD50 are actually measurements of the same thing: effectiveness of a virus in entering and damaging a host cell.