Multiple Choice
A 45 year old is diagnosed with macrocytic, normochromic anemia.The nurse suspects the most likely cause of this condition is:
A) defective DNA synthesis.
B) abnormal synthesis of hemoglobin.
C) defective use of vitamin C.
D) blocked protein synthesis.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Correct Answer:
Verified
Related Questions
Q4: What is the most likely cause of
Q5: A 30 year old presents with hematuria,
Q6: When a nurse is reviewing lab results
Q7: A 40-year-old male's history includes being a
Q8: A 67-year-old female is admitted to the
Q10: Considering anemia, what effect do vitamin B<sub>12</sub>
Q11: A 65 year old experienced loss of
Q12: A patient is diagnosed with primary thrombocythemia.A
Q13: A 35-year-old male has enlarged lymph nodes
Q14: A 15-year-old male is diagnosed with infectious