Remembering Micro Theory, Why Can It Be Assumed That Home

Essay

Remembering micro theory, why can it be assumed that home demand for the product of a foreign monopoly supplier (at the initial as well as the post-tariff point) is elastic? Even if the net welfare impact of the "tariff to extract foreign monopoly profit" is uncertain, why is it certain that home consumers will incur less total spending on the good after the imposition of the tariff than before the imposition of the tariff?