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If cur1F=0\operatorname { cur } 1 { \vec { F} } = \vec { 0 }

Question 64

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If cur1F=0\operatorname { cur } 1 { \vec { F} } = \vec { 0 } then by Stokes' Theorem the line integral Q˙Fˉ×dr\dot { \mathrm { Q } } { \bar { F } \times \vec { d r } } is equal to zero, where C is the curve y = x2, for 0 \le x \le 2.

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