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Here Is the Regression with Both Latitude and Longitude as Predictors

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Here is the regression with both Latitude and Longitude as predictors: Dependent variable is: JanTemp
RR squared =74.1%R= 74.1 \% \quad R squared (adjusted) =73.1%= 73.1 \%
s=7.000\mathrm { s } = 7.000 with 553=5255 - 3 = 52 degrees of freedom
 Source  Sum of Squares  df  Mean Square  F-ratio  Regression 7277.1823638.5974.2 Residual 2548.355249.0067 Variable  Coefficient  SE(Coeff)  t-ratio  P-value  Intercept 98.56208.47311.60.0001 Lat 2.162860.177612.20.0001 Long 0.1344710.06412.100.0407\begin{array} { l l l l l } \text { Source } & \text { Sum of Squares } & \text { df } & \text { Mean Square } & \text { F-ratio } \\ \text { Regression } & 7277.18 & 2 & 3638.59 & 74.2 \\ \text { Residual } & 2548.35 & 52 & 49.0067 & \\ & & & & \\ \text { Variable } & \text { Coefficient } & \text { SE(Coeff) } & \text { t-ratio } & \text { P-value } \\ \text { Intercept } & 98.5620 & 8.473 & 11.6 & \leq 0.0001 \\ \text { Lat } & - 2.16286 & 0.1776 & - 12.2 & \leq 0.0001 \\ \text { Long } & 0.134471 & 0.0641 & 2.10 & 0.0407 \end{array}
The coefficient of Long in this regression differs from the coefficient of Long in the simple
regression of JanTemp on Long. What is the meaning of the coefficient of Long in this
regression? Are you confident ( ( at α=0.05)( \text { at } \alpha = 0.05 )
that the coefficient is not zero? Why or why
not?

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The coefficient of Long now measures the...

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