Essay
Physician Steve Lambert has introduced the notion that men experience a male climacteric (andropause) comparable to the female climacteric (menopause).Do you think it is useful to identify and categorize a set of normal physiological changes as a medical phenomenon? Why or why not? Even if these changes constitute a specific physiological event for older males, is it problematic to directly compare it to the female climacteric? Why or why not?
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