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If Spearman's Co-Efficient of Rank Correlation Is Equal to One

Question 10

Multiple Choice

If Spearman's co-efficient of rank correlation is equal to one, then:


A) all the 'total variation' is 'explained' by the regression line
B) the rankings of the two variables partially agree
C) the rankings of the two variables is totally different
D) the rankings of the two variables totally agree

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