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Paul Notes That If a=3\mathrm{a}=3 And b=3\mathrm{b}=-3 , Then ab=ba=1\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{b}}=\frac{\mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{a}}=-1 He Concludes That for Any Real Numbers

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Paul notes that if a=3\mathrm{a}=3 and b=3\mathrm{b}=-3 , then ab=ba=1\frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{b}}=\frac{\mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{a}}=-1 . He concludes that for any real numbers a\mathrm{a} and b,ab=ba\mathrm{b}, \frac{\mathrm{a}}{\mathrm{b}}=\frac{\mathrm{b}}{\mathrm{a}} . Do you agree with his reasoning? If not, why not?

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