Multiple Choice
Which of the following is NOT true of the contra proferentum rule?
A) It is a rule of contractual interpretation.
B) It is always the best means of resolving an ambiguous term.
C) It attributes to a term the meaning least favourable to its author.
D) It provides an incentive for the author of a term to draft it in clear and unambiguous language.
E) It applies to contracts where the other side did not draft the contract nor have any meaningful input into the contractual terms.
Correct Answer:
Verified
Correct Answer:
Verified
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