Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ Necessarily Be the Same for a Given

Multiple Choice

Would ID₅₀ and LD₅₀ necessarily be the same for a given virus? Why or why not?

A) Yes,because the number of viruses that infect 50% of a test population should also kill 50% of that test population.
B) No,because a virus may be highly infectious (very low ID₅₀ value) but only marginally lethal (very high LD₅₀ value) .A prime example of this is the rhinovirus (common cold virus) .
C) No,because very few viruses are lethal,yet many are highly infectious.The two values should ALWAYS be different.
D) Yes,because what we're actually describing here is infection/killing of individual CELLS,not of entire organisms.If a cell is infected,it will always be killed.