Multiple Choice
Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the question that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.
As a triage nurse in the ER, you begin the assessment of an elderly patient complaining of bloody diarrhea and severe stomach cramps. You find the patient has a fever of 104oF as well, and is showing signs of dehydration. IV fluids are administered while further analysis of the patient continues.
-Gram staining reveals the presence of gram-negative bacilli in the patient's stool.Thinking about the patient's spike in temperature,you understand now how this bacterium could cause a fever.Which of the following is the correct explanation?
A) Gram-negative bacteria have a thick peptidoglycan layer which confers their ability to cause fever.
B) Gram-negative bacteria have two periplasmic spaces which enhance their ability to cause fever.
C) Gram-negative bacteria have porin proteins in their outer membrane which confer their ability to cause fever.
D) Gram-negative bacteria have lipopolysaccharide in their outer membrane,and the lipid portion confers their ability to cause fever.
Correct Answer:

Verified
Correct Answer:
Verified
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