Multiple Choice
Use the information below to answer the following questions.
-Refer to the table above. The adverse (unfavourable) sales variance of $100,000 is best explained by:
A) a decrease in price of the units sold.
B) the sales manager failing to sell the budgeted units.
C) an increase in expenses.
D) none of the above.
Correct Answer:

Verified
Correct Answer:
Verified
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