Deck 16: Adaptive Immunity

Question 1

You step on something in the yard resulting in a puncture wound that does not bleed freely. Antigens from any microbes that entered the wound will most likely end up in the

A) lymph nodes of the armpit (axilla).
B) spleen.
C) lymph nodes of the groin (inguinal).
D) lymph nodes of the neck (cervical).
E) appendix.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Adaptive immunity is sometimes also called acquired immunity. Which of the following statements provides a basis for the alternative name?

A) To become activated, lymphocytes require exposure to the antigenic determinant for which they are specific.
B) Lymphocytes of the adaptive immune system are highly specific for a single antigenic determinant.
C) Activated lymphocytes produce daughter cells that are identical in specificity and function.
D) Activated lymphocytes may persist for years in the body.
E) Lymphocytes reactive to normal body components are removed.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Secretory IgA antibodies are unique because they

A) have unique light chains.
B) are present in the plasma.
C) are present in lymph nodes.
D) are Y-shaped molecules.
E) are connected with J chains and short polypeptides to form dimers.

Answer 3

E

Question 4

The antibody immune response is attributed to the action of

A) macrophages.
B) T lymphocytes.
C) B lymphocytes.
D) monocytes.
E) neutrophils.

Question 5

The structural features common to all antibody classes are

A) two pairs of a heavy chain and a light chain which form an antigen binding site.
B) a stem formed of a light chain and a heavy chain.
C) an antigen binding site formed by two light chains.
D) an antigen binding site formed by a single heavy chain.
E) a heavy chain paired with a light chain.

Question 6

The Fc portion of an antibody is formed by

A) portions of both of the heavy chains only.
B) the light chains only.
C) the variable regions of the heavy chains.
D) one heavy chain.
E) the variable regions of the light chains.

Question 7

Which of the following statements regarding antibody function is FALSE?

A) They can facilitate phagocyte attack on bacteria with a capsule (glycocalyx).
B) They can prevent virus attachment to host cells.
C) They can bind more than one pathogen at a time, forming complexes.
D) They can facilitate cytotoxic attack by natural killer lymphocytes.
E) They can penetrate host cells to bind intracellular antigens.

Question 8

Which of the following statements concerning B cell receptors (BCRs) is FALSE?

A) Scientists estimate that each person forms at least 1011 different types of B lymphocytes with distinct BCRs.
B) They are formed in response to an encounter with an antigen.
C) They are complementary in shape to a specific antigenic determinant that they may or may not encounter.
D) Each B lymphocyte is randomly generated with antibody variable regions that determine its BCR.
E) They are bound to the surface of B lymphocytes and have two antigen -binding sites.

Question 9

In what way is the lymphatic system similar to the circulatory system?

A) The composition of lymphatic fluid is similar to that of blood plasma.
B) The same types of cells flow through both systems.
C) The lymphatic system is also a circulatory system.
D) The lymph nodes can contract to push fluid through the system.
E) Fluid flows from larger vessels to capillaries.

Question 10

Large accumulations of unactivated self-tolerant lymphocytes conducting surveillance for specific antigenic determinants are found in

A) lymph nodes.
B) the MALT.
C) the thymus.
D) the MALT and lymph nodes.
E) the MALT, lymph nodes, and thymus.

Question 11

The white blood cells primarily responsible for adaptive immunity are

A) B lymphocytes and T lymphocytes.
B) macrophages and eosinophils.
C) NK lymphocytes and neutrophils.
D) macrophages and neutrophils.
E) neutrophils and dendritic cells.

Question 12

Which of the following statements about lymphocytes is FALSE?

A) Lymphocytes have integral surface proteins by which they can be recognized.
B) The glycoproteins on the surface of a lymphocyte are designated with the prefix CD, for ʺcluster of differentiation.ʺ
C) Lymphocytes have different types of CD molecules in their cytoplasmic membranes.
D) B and T lymphocytes can be differentiated under the microscope.
E) Once they are mature, they migrate to secondary lymphoid organs.

Question 13

The type of immunoglobulin illustrated here is

A) IgM.
B) IgD.
C) IgA.
D) IgE.
E) IgG.

Question 14

One of the advantages of adaptive immunity over innate immunity is

A) the response is far faster.
B) a huge variety of cells are produced in response to an infection.
C) the ability to recognize antigens common to many microbes.
D) the response targets classes of pathogen instead of specific pathogens.
E) the response is targeted against a single pathogen.

Question 15

Which of the following is an exogenous antigen?

A) the malaria parasite inside a red blood cell
B) a virus inside a cell
C) a bacterium outside a cell
D) a noninfected human cell
E) a bacterium inside a cell

Question 16

Which of the following cytokines act as a signal between leukocytes?

A) chemokines
B) growth factors
C) interleukins
D) tumor necrosis factors
E) interferons

Question 17

NK cells can interact with antibodies in the process of antibody -dependent cellular cytotoxicity.

A) IgD
B) IgM
C) IgE
D) IgG
E) IgA

Question 18

Which of the following function(s) in agglutination?

A) IgE antibodies
B) IgD antibodies
C) IgA antibodies
D) IgG antibodies
E) IgA and IgG antibodies

Question 19

Clonal deletion of developing T lymphocytes takes place in which location(s) in the body?

A) the liver
B) the spleen
C) the thymus
D) both the bone marrow and the spleen
E) the bone marrow

Question 20

Which of the following pairs of lymphocyte and glycoprotein is MISMATCHED?

A) Tr: CD25
B) Th2: CD4
C) Th1: CD8
D) CTL: CD8
E) Tr: CD4

Question 21

What is the role of interleukins?

A) ensuring production of enough leukocytes
B) chemotaxis of leukocytes
C) production of virally infected cells
D) signaling between leukocytes
E) complement activation

Question 22

What type of immunity is produced by the body when a person contracts a disease?

A) artificially acquired passive immunity
B) naturally acquired active immunity
C) innate immunity
D) naturally acquired passive immunity
E) artificially acquired active immunity

Question 23

Which of the following statements concerning plasma cells is TRUE?

A) They can produce large quantities of antibodies on a daily basis.
B) They are descended from activated T cells.
C) They live for many years and function as memory cells.
D) They secrete a variety of antibody molecules specific for multiple epitopes.
E) The antibodies they produce can remain in circulation for years.

Question 24

The perforin-granzyme pathway involves

A) the production of antibodies toward the invading pathogen.
B) binding CD95L to infected cells, which eventually leads to cell apoptosis.
C) the production of fever, which kills the pathogen.
D) the synthesis of special cell-killing proteins that act on infected or abnormal cells.
E) presenting the foreign antigen to B cells.

Question 25

Which of the following recognizes and binds to MHC II antigens and helps stabilize the binding of epitopes to T cell receptors?

A) CD26
B) CD4
C) CCR5
D) MHC I
E) CCR3

Question 26

The protozoan that causes malaria is an intracellular parasite of red blood cells (RBCs). An adaptive immune response to this parasite is problematic because

A) RBCs never enter lymphoid tissue.
B) RBCs normally produce cytokines necessary for adaptive immune response, which this infection prevents.
C) complement cannot effectively destroy RBCs.
D) red blood cells do not produce MHC and therefore do not display the fact that they have been infected by presenting antigen.
E) the parasite damages leukocytes along with RBCs.

Question 27

Which of the following cytokines helps regulate inflammation?

A) IL-4 (interleukin-4)
B) IL-12
C) alpha interferon
D) tumor necrosis factor (TNF)
E) chemokines

Question 28

What types of antigens are bound to Class I MHC (major histocompatibility complex) proteins?

A) autoantigens
B) both autoantigens and endogenous antigens
C) exogenous antigens
D) endogenous antigens
E) autoantigens, endogenous, and exogenous antigens

Question 29

Which of the following molecules would contain T-independent antigens?

A) steroids
B) phospholipids
C) lipoproteins
D) glycoproteins
E) polysaccharides

Question 30

Which of the following components of antigen processing is MISMATCHED?

A) endogenous antigen: MHC II
B) exogenous antigen: MHC II
C) phagosome: exogenous antigen
D) endoplasmic reticulum: endogenous antigen
E) endogengous antigen: MHC I

Question 31

The role of dendrites in the adaptive immune response is to

A) distinguish between endogenous and exogenous antigens.
B) attack and destroy invading pathogens.
C) process endogenous antigens for presentation on MHC I molecules.
D) degrade exogenous antigens for presentation on MHC II molecules.
E) detect autoreactive lymphocytes and trigger apoptosis.

Question 32

Which of the following statements regarding the cell-mediated immune response is TRUE?

A) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes kill by producing hydrogen peroxide.
B) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes interact with antibodies that have bound antigen to identify their target.
C) Helper T lymphocytes have no role in the activation of cytotoxic T lymphocytes.
D) A single cytotoxic T lymphocyte can kill many target cells.
E) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes do not require antigen presentation to become activated.

Question 33

The appendix and the Peyerʹs patches of the intestines are components of the

A) clonal deletion process.
B) thymus-associated organs.
C) innate immune response.
D) MALT (mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue).
E) lymphatic vessel system.

Question 34

Leukocytes migrate to a site of infection in response to

A) chemokines.
B) interferon alpha.
C) bradykinins.
D) tumor necrosis factor (TNF).
E) interleukin 10 (IL-10).

Question 35

What will be the direct result of the interaction shown in this figure? (This interaction is occurring in a lymph node.)

A) activation of a B lymphocyte
B) activation of a helper T lymphocyte
C) activation of a cytotoxic T lymphocyte
D) clonal deletion of a B lymphocyte
E) clonal deletion of a T lymphocyte

Question 36

After an initial exposure to a pathogen, the phenomenon of produces a faster, more effective response to subsequent exposures.

A) clonal selection
B) immunological memory
C) self-tolerance
D) immunological synapse
E) clonal deletion

Question 37

Major histocompatibility antigens are

A) antigens attached to foreign invaders.
B) glycoproteins found in the cytoplasmic membranes of most vertebrate animal cells.
C) antigens that must be processed by cells called histiocytes in order to be recognized by the immune system.
D) not really antigens, but rather antibodies produced to mask foreign antigens.
E) antigens that provoke allergic reactions.

Question 38

A sick child may have influenza or RSV. These virus infections have different treatment options, so the physician requests antibody titer tests. The results are as follows: anti-influenza antibodies are primarily IgM, and anti-RSV antibodies are all IgA and IgG. Which of the following is the most appropriate interpretation?

A) The child has a current RSV infection and was previously exposed to influenza.
B) The child has neither influenza nor RSV.
C) The child currently has influenza and has previously been exposed to RSV.
D) The child has concurrent influenza and RSV infections.
E) The results do not provide sufficient data to draw a conclusion.

Question 39

What is the result when a dendritic cell phagocytizes a microbe and processes it?

A) suppression of the immune response to the microbe
B) display of microbial fragments with CD8 glycoproteins
C) display of epitope-MHC I complexes on the surface of the cell
D) display of microbial epitope-MHC II complexes on the cell surface
E) activation of the dendritic cell to become a plasma cell

Question 40

Type 1 helper T (Th1) cells produce to stimulate increased phagocytosis,

A) gamma interferon (INF-γ)
B) growth factors
C) chemokines
D) alpha interferon (INF-α)
E) tumor necrosis factors (TNFs)

Question 41

The degree to which a molecule is antigenic is largely a function of the (shape/complexity/simplicity/repetition) of the molecule.

Question 42

When a T cellʹs CD95L binds to the CD95 on a target cell, antibodies are formed.

Question 43

Vaccination triggers an immune response which produces immunity.

A) natural passive
B) artificial active
C) artificial passive
D) natural active
E) both active and passive

Question 44

The process of (apoptosis/autolysis/differentiation) is a critical event in the development of self-tolerance.

Question 45

Large molecules such as polymers make good antigens.

Question 46

An antigen-presenting cell (APC) processes and displays (auto-/endogenous/exogenous) antigen.

Question 47

Some plasma cells persist long after an infection and contribute to secondary immune responses.

Question 48

During an infection with Listeria, an intracellular bacterium, APCs will present antigen on MHC II molecules.

Question 49

A single B lymphocyte can recognize multiple antigenic determinants.

Question 50

Cytokines are soluble regulatory proteins that act as intercellular signals and include substances such as interleukins, interferon, and growth factors.

Question 51

Molecules with a molecular mass less than 5000 daltons can become antigens when they bind to carrier molecules.

Question 52

Which of the following best describes IgM antibodies?

A) They cause basophils and eosinophils to degranulate.
B) They interact with phagocytes and NK cells.
C) They can cross the placenta to provide passive immunity.
D) They are the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.
E) They are the antibody class found in body secretions.

Question 53

Each B lymphocyte develops a unique BCR variable region by random assembly of immunoglobulin gene fragments.

Question 54

The MALT lacks the tough outer capsule of a lymph node but functions in the same way.

Question 55

How is the development of autoimmunity normally prevented?

A) Regulatory T cells suppress autoimmune responses.
B) T lymphocytes require a specific set of cytokine signals to become activated.
C) Clonal deletion of T cells, lack of necessary cytokine signals, and regulatory T cell suppression prevent activation of autoreactive T cells.
D) Clonal deletion of T cells and regulatory T cell suppression prevent autoreactive T cell activation.
E) T lymphocytes that respond to autoantigens in the thymus undergo clonal deletion.

Question 56

IgG antibodies have a variety of mechanisms for acting on antigens.

Question 57

A CD4+ T cell detects its epitope presented by an APC and receives IL-4 signals. It will differentiate to become a(n)

A) CTL.
B) APC.
C) Th1 cell.
D) Th2 cell.
E) Tr lymphocyte.

Question 58

IgE antibodies are best described as

A) those involved in complement activation.
B) the trigger for antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC).
C) the antibodies found in body secretions.
D) a cause of basophil and eosinophil degranulation.
E) the most common type of antibody in the blood during the initial phases of an immune response.

Question 59

The ability of the body to respond faster and more effectively to a second exposure to pathogens is called immunologic (memory/synapse/tolerance).

Question 60

The (constant/end/variable) regions from the light and heavy chains of an antibody combine to form antigen-binding sites.

Question 61

The antibody function known as (agglutination/neutralization/opsonization) is illustrated here.

Question 62

A variety of molecular components of the adaptive immune system bind epitopes (antigenic determinants). Compare and contrast the binding of epitopes by antibody molecules, T cell receptors (TCRs), and MHC molecules, and describe the consequences of the different interactions.

Question 63

Antibody molecules are produced by (B/plasma/T) cells.

Question 64

The epitope specificity of a T lymphocyte is determined by its (MHC/BCR/TCR).

Question 65

B lymphocytes can bind directly to large antigens with repeating polysaccharide subunits, such as a bacterial capsule that has antigenic determinants known as T-independent (receptors/antigens).

Question 66

Professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) include B cells, macrophages, and (dendritic/plasma/T) cells.

Question 67

Discuss the importance of there being two types of adaptive immune responses (antibody and cell-mediated).

Question 68

When a T cell and an antigen-presenting cell interact, a specialized contact called an immunological (connection/bond/synapse) forms between them.

Question 69

Virus infections result in activation of B cells as well as activation of Tc cells. Explain how a B cell response to virus may be useful in fighting virus infections.

Question 70

Describe the mechanisms of action of antibodies.

Question 71

The surface of each B lymphocyte is covered with about 250,000 to 500,000 identical copies of (BCR/MHC/TCR).

Question 72

TCRs only recognize antigens presented by APC; therefore, (BCR/MHC/Th1) molecules ultimately determine which epitopes elicit an immune response.

Question 73

The cytokine (IL-4/INF-γ/TNF) causes abnormal cells to undergo apoptosis.

Question 74

Compare and contrast clonal deletion and clonal selection of B lymphocytes.

Question 75

An APC presents antigen to an unactivated T lymphocyte on an MHC I molecule and secretes IL-12 at the same time. As a result the T lymphocyte differentiates into a (Th1/Th2/Tr) lymphocyte.