Deck 14: Organellar Inheritance

Question 1

Lack of strong hybridization by an allele-specific probe of about 20 bases to DNA to be tested indicates

A) a normal,unchanged sequence.
B) a polymorphic sequence.
C) that the probe is too short.
D) that the probe is too long.
E) The information given is not enough.

Answer 1

E

Question 2

If a PCR amplified sample hybridizes with two allele specific probes,one normal and one mutant sequence,a carrier is identified if

A) both probes give a signal.
B) neither sample gives a signal.
C) only the mutant probe gives a signal.
D) only the non-mutant probe gives a signal.
E) None of the choices are correct.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Molecular geneticists equate an allele with

A) only transcribed genes.
B) only non-transcribed DNA.
C) any DNA site that is different among genomes.
D) any DNA site that is different among coding genomes.
E) any DNA site that is different among non-coding genomes.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

SNP is the acronym for:

A) simple Northern probe.
B) single nucleotide polymorphism.
C) sample in situ probe.
D) simple nucleotide probe.
E) small nuclear particle

Question 5

How many bases can be part of a deletions,duplications,or insertions?

A) 1
B) 10
C) 100
D) 1000
E) 1 base or more

Question 6

If the chance of a person being polymorphic for a particular microsatellite is 50%,what is the chance that a person is polymorphic for four unlinked microsatellite loci?

A) 75%
B) 50%
C) 25%
D) 6.25%
E) 95%

Question 7

Quantitative traits can be distinguished by

A) being measurable.
B) being influenced by multiple genes.
C) not having genetic causes.
D) being measurable and not having genetic causes.
E) being measurable and being influenced by multiple genes.

Question 8

For a gene or a locus to be considered polymorphic it must satisfy the following two conditions must be present in

A) all males and females.
B) two or more sequence variations in at least 10% of the population.
C) two or more sequence variations in at least 1% of the population.
D) two or more sequence variations in at least 10% of children,since not all may reach adulthood.
E) two or more sequence variations in at least 1% of children,since not all may reach adulthood.

Question 9

Pick the choice that best describes a DNA fingerprint.

A) a comparison of microsatellites from closely related individuals
B) uses CNVs that are detected by a microarray
C) uses minisatellite families and labeled probes to produce a profile
D) is a specialized application of the FISH protocol
E) DNA that is used only in criminal trials.

Question 10

Phenocopy of genetic diseases can arise from

A) environmental stimuli in adulthood.
B) environmental stimuli in utero.
C) genetic alterations.
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) None of the choices are correct.

Question 11

In microsatellite analysis,all of the following are applicable except

A) must know the sequence of flanking markers.
B) must know the sequence of the repeat units in the microsatellite.
C) polymorphism is a matter of DNA size.
D) electrophoresis.
E) PCR.

Question 12

Incomplete penetrance

A) can vary from trait to trait.
B) is observed when the disease genotype does not necessarily result in a disease phenotype.
C) is only observed for late-onset diseases.
D) can vary from trait to trait and is observed when the disease genotype does not necessarily result in a disease phenotype.
E) can vary from trait to trait and is only observed for late-onset diseases.

Question 13

The most common method for genotyping allelic SSRs is by

A) Southern blot analysis
B) FISH protocol
C) PCR and gel electrophoresis
D) sequencing
E) gas chromatography

Question 14

Mapping a disease gene in humans requires

A) large families with pedigrees and DNA sequences.
B) large numbers of mapped physical markers with complete genomic coverage and small families with pedigrees and DNA sequences.
C) small numbers of mapped markers and small families with pedigrees and DNA sequences
D) a multi-generational selective breeding program.
E) either large families with pedigrees and DNA sequences or large numbers of mapped physical markers with complete genomic coverage and small families with pedigrees and DNA sequences.

Question 15

Thalidomide was a common treatment for morning sickness in the 1950s.Children born to mothers given this drug showed the phenotypes of a genetic disease known as phocomelia,which involves shortened limbs.This may represent

A) incomplete dominance.
B) genetic heterogeneity.
C) penetrance.
D) phenocopy.
E) incomplete penetrance.

Question 16

Which of the following is the main source of variation in microsatellites?

A) chemicals in water
B) chemicals in food
C) ultraviolet light
D) background radiation
E) faulty DNA replication

Question 17

Huntington disease is caused by

A) a closely linked marker allele.
B) less than 34 CAG repeats.
C) base-pair substitution.
D) a recessive allele.
E) 42 or more CAG repeats.

Question 18

In microsatellites,one-,two-,or three-base sequences are repeated about

A) one million times.
B) one hundred thousand times.
C) one thousand times.
D) two hundred times.
E) 15-100 times.

Question 19

Positional cloning requires knowledge about the

A) function of a gene.
B) expression pattern of a gene.
C) map location of a gene.
D) sequence of a gene.
E) evolutionary history of a gene.

Question 20

Which is the most frequent cause of DNA polymorphism?

A) single base differences
B) duplications
C) inversions
D) translocations
E) ploidy

Question 21

Define a locus in a classic sense and define it in a modern sense.How are the two definitions similar and different?

Question 22

The DNA fingerprints of monozygotic twins are identical.

Question 23

DNA fingerprinting established that Anna Anderson was the same as Grand Duchess Anastasia.

Question 24

Two parents produced two embryos through in vitro fertilization.One of these embryos was found to have a normal genotype,and the other was found to be a heterozygous carrier for cystic fibrosis.These parents chose to have both placed in the womb.Use of the carrier embryo increased their chance of having a child,and they were willing to pass on a harmful allele to satisfy their own desire to procreate.Based on your knowledge of genetic disease,what would you say about the ethics of their decision?

Question 25

The genetic role of minisatellites is well known.

Question 26

If DNA is isolated from two healthy individuals,it is very likely that their DNA sequence will be identical.

Question 27

Predisposition to breast cancer results from

A) mutations in multiple genes.
B) mutations in BRCA1 that show 50% penetrance.
C) environmental causes.
D) None of the choices are correct.
E) All of the choices are correct.

Question 28

Modern geneticists define an allele as any variation in the DNA sequence of a locus.

Question 29

Misalignment during synapsis is a source of additional number of repeats in minisatellites.

Question 30

QTL is the acronym for quantitative trait loci.

Question 31

Microsatellites tend to be highly conserved,that is,once made they stay the same.

Question 32

If a couple has a child who suffers from cystic fibrosis,then both must be carriers.

Question 33

A DNA sequence can be useful for

A) finding differences between individuals.
B) finding information about protein function.
C) finding protein motifs.
D) finding duplicated genes.
E) All of the choices.

Question 34

DNA polymerase "stutter," a pause that can cause misalignment of repeating nucleotides,is a main source of variation in microsatellites.

Question 35

DNA fingerprints identify polymorphisms in minisatellites and can be used to identify family relationships between old skeletal material and living individuals.

Question 36

Compare and contrast the definition of an allele by Mendel,Morgan,and other classical geneticists to the definition offered by current geneticists.

Question 37

Two parents believed that their baby had been switched with another couple's baby at the hospital.The other couple was certain that they had their own baby and that the infants had not been switched.All the parents agreed to DNA fingerprinting for themselves and their babies to resolve the issue.The image below represents an electrophoretic gel analysis of microsatellites for two pairs of parents and the babies they had taken home (M1 = mother #1,M2 = mother #2,F1 = father #1,F2 = father #2,B1 = baby #1,B2 = baby #2).Use the data from these profiles to answer the following questions: a)Does baby #1 most likely belong to mother #1 and father #1? b)What evidence is there,if any,that baby #1 cannot belong to mother #2 and father #2? c)Is it possible that father #1 and mother #2 are secretly lovers and are actually the parents of baby #1? d)Is it possible that mother #1 and father #2 are actually the parents of baby #2? e)Is this test sufficient to establish paternity? Why or why not?

Question 38

Nearly all SNPs are biallelic.

Question 39

All DNA sequence changes in the CFTR gene lead to the disease called cystic fibrosis.

Question 40

A gene is simply a coding locus.

Question 41

Quantitative trait loci can be examined using pure-breeding parents and measuring a particular trait.If each allele makes an equal contribution to the phenotype,then the number of loci can be discerned.Bristle length in Drosophila behaves as a quantitative trait.If one parent has bristles of 30 nm and a second fly has bristles of 10 nm,then the F1 will have bristles of 20 nm.If the F1 flies are crossed to produce the F2 generation,the following classes of flies are observed.Use this data to answer these questions: a)How many different genotypes would be found among the flies with 10 nm bristles? b).How many different genotypes would be found among the flies with 30 nm bristles? c)How many different genotypes would be found among the flies with 15 or 25 nm bristles? d)How many loci are affecting this trait? e)If one wanted to find a physical marker that was linked to genes affecting bristle length,which flies would be most useful?
Number of F2 Flies Length of bristles
10 10
40 15
60 20
40 25
10 30