Deck 2: From Conception to Birth

Question 1

Harold and Heather are twins. They are the result of:

A) One ovum fertilized by one sperm that split into two zygotes.
B) Two separate ova that were fertilized by two different sperms.
C) One ovum that was fertilized by two sperms.
D) Two ova that were fertilized by one sperm.

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Michelle and Greg are having a baby and are hoping for a boy. Who is responsible for the determining the sex of the baby?

A) Michelle
B) Greg
C) both of them
D) neither of them

Answer 2

B

Question 3

The name of the full set of genes that provide the instructions for making living organisms is the:

A) phenotype.
B) genotype.
C) genome.
D) allele.

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Each molecule of DNA is called a(n):

A) chromosome.
B) RNA.
C) gene.
D) zygote.

Question 5

Each human has a total of about _____ genes.

A) 10,000-13,000
B) 20,000-23,000
C) 30,000-33,000
D) 40,000-43,000

Question 6

Genetic _____ distinguishes each person and allows for adaptation.

A) mapping
B) diversity
C) similarities
D) testing

Question 7

On the 23rd set of chromosomes, females have:

A) two X chromosomes.
B) two Y chromosomes
C) an X and a Y chromosome.
D) just a Y chromosome.

Question 8

Each individual inherits 23 chromosomes from their mother and 23 chromosomes from their father. In addition, epigenetic effects create an individual's appearance and behavior to create a:

A) phenotype.
B) allele.
C) genotype.
D) gamete.

Question 9

Brothers and sisters from the same parents share only half the same genes, making the possible combinations:

A) in the hundreds.
B) in the thousands.
C) in the tens of thousands.
D) in the millions.

Question 10

Identical twins are also called _____ twins.

A) monozygotic
B) dizygotic
C) zygotic
D) gamete

Question 11

Reproductive cells are called:

A) chromosomes.
B) zygotes.
C) DNA.
D) gametes.

Question 12

Each reproductive cell contains:

A) 46 pairs of chromosomes.
B) 46 chromosomes.
C) 23 chromosomes.
D) 20 pairs of chromosomes.

Question 13

Timur and Juan are playing basketball. Timur shoots the ball and Juan blocks the shot. Timur says, "Wow, I didn't realize how tall you were until you did that!" Timur's comment refers to Juan's:

A) phenotype.
B) allele.
C) genotype.
D) gamete.

Question 14

The total collection of genes that an individual has is called his or her:

A) phenotype.
B) allele.
C) genotype.
D) gamete.

Question 15

Which statement is true?

A) Male embryos are more vulnerable than female embryos therefore less likely to survive prenatally.
B) Female embryos are more vulnerable than male embryos therefore less likely to survive prenatally.
C) Male and female embryos are equally vulnerable prenatally making them equally likely to survive prenatally.
D) X sperm swim faster and reach the ovum first while the Y sperm is more resistant to genetic disorders.

Question 16

On the 23rd set of chromosomes, males have:

A) two X chromosomes.
B) two Y chromosomes.
C) an X and a Y chromosome.
D) just a Y chromosome.

Question 17

The _____ is a worldwide effort to map all human genes.

A) Hap Map
B) Apgar scale
C) Human Genome Project
D) Brazelton Assessment

Question 18

Each human body cell contains:

A) 46 pairs of chromosomes.
B) 46 chromosomes.
C) 23 chromosomes.
D) 20 pairs of chromosomes.

Question 19

Justin and Jacob are identical twins. They are the result of:

A) One ovum fertilized by one sperm that split into two zygotes.
B) Two separate ova that were fertilized by two different sperms.
C) One ovum that was fertilized by two sperms.
D) Two ova that were fertilized by one sperm.

Question 20

Fraternal twins are also called _____ twins.

A) monozygotic
B) dizygotic
C) zygotic
D) gamete

Question 21

Before differentiation begins, the first cells of the zygote are called _____ cells.

A) germinal
B) stem
C) zygotic
D) reproduction

Question 22

Lacy has a recessive gene in her genotype that is not expressed in her phenotype. She is a(n) _____ of that gene.

A) recipient
B) carrier
C) expressor
D) reactor

Question 23

Many obstetricians date the onset of pregnancy from the date:

A) of conception.
B) of the woman's last menstrual period.
C) of implantation.
D) when the woman had intercourse.

Question 24

During the germinal period of prenatal development, some cells become part of the brain, some become part of the leg, and some become part of the stomach, etc. The term for this process is:

A) duplication.
B) division.
C) differentiation.
D) specialization.

Question 25

The germinal period ends approximately _____ after conception.

A) 2 days
B) 3 months
C) 2 weeks
D) 12 weeks

Question 26

Almost every trait is _____, which means it is affected by many genes.

A) polygenic
B) nonadditive
C) X-linked
D) monozygotic

Question 27

Historically, who was blamed for not producing an offspring of a particular gender?

A) mothers only
B) fathers only
C) both mothers and fathers
D) fathers only if a girl was desired and a boy was born

Question 28

Holly learned from her science teacher that her height resulted from about 180 genes, each contributing a tiny amount of genetic information. Holly learned that her height was due to:

A) additive genes.
B) dominant genes.
C) recessive genes.
D) nonadditive genes.

Question 29

Due to understanding more about the role of genes in determining the sex of a child, couples can select the sex of a child by all methods EXCEPT:

A) inactivating X or Y sperm before conception.
B) selecting only X eggs for fertilization.
C) aborting XX or XY fetuses.
D) undergoing in vitro fertilization and then inserting only male or female embryos.

Question 30

About a week after conception, the outer layer of the multiplying cells forms a protective circle, or shell, that will become the:

A) placenta.
B) umbilical cord.
C) vernix.
D) infant.

Question 31

Around day 14 of the embryonic period, the _____ appears. It will eventually become the neural tube.

A) the stem cells
B) the spinal cord
C) the primitive streak
D) the placenta

Question 32

The neural tube will become the:

A) reproductive organs.
B) intestinal tract.
C) backbone, legs, and arms.
D) brain and spinal cord.

Question 33

When the effects of genes add up to make the phenotype, they are called _____ genes.

A) dominant
B) recessive
C) additive
D) nonadditive

Question 34

In the fourth week after conception, a miniscule blood vessel that is the start of the _____ system begins to pulsate.

A) respiratory
B) digestive
C) skeletal
D) cardiovascular

Question 35

During the germinal period, the first task of the zygote's outer cells is:

A) differentiation.
B) duplication.
C) germination.
D) implantation.

Question 36

What is the main function of the placenta?

A) screening out potentially harmful substances
B) exchanging blood between the mother and the developing embryo
C) protecting and surrounding the developing fetus
D) creating antibodies for the developing fetus

Question 37

Cindy is doing a presentation on prenatal development and wants to present the three main periods of prenatal development in order from conception to birth. Cindy's presentation uses the following order:

A) embryonic, germinal, and fetal.
B) fetal, embryonic, and germinal.
C) germinal, embryonic, and fetal.
D) germinal, fetal, and embryonic.

Question 38

Brown-eyed Alma has a blue-eyed mother and a brown-eyed father. In this case, her brown eyes were determined by a _____ allele.

A) dominant
B) recessive
C) dominant-recessive
D) dizygotic

Question 39

Michael is color-blind. His gene for color blindness is most likely a:

A) dominant gene on his X chromosome.
B) dominant gene on his Y chromosome.
C) recessive gene on his X chromosome.
D) recessive gene on his Y chromosome.

Question 40

The head begins to take shape in the _____ week after conception.

A) fourth
B) fifth
C) sixth
D) seventh

Question 41

Full-term pregnancies typically last _____ from the date of conception.

A) 32 weeks
B) 34 weeks
C) 36 weeks
D) 38 weeks

Question 42

The third period of gestation is the _____ period.

A) zygotic
B) embryonic
C) germinal
D) fetal

Question 43

Virginia Apgar was a(n):

A) anesthesiologist.
B) labor and delivery nurse.
C) surgeon.
D) obstetrician.

Question 44

The _____ starts the sequence of events that prepares the fetus for delivery and starts labor.

A) fetal brain
B) maternal brain
C) placenta
D) germinal period

Question 45

The critical factor in attaining the age of viability is:

A) weighing at least 5 pounds (2.3 kg).
B) having adequate brain development.
C) having functioning digestive and respiratory systems.
D) surviving at least 28 weeks past conception.

Question 46

In the _____ after conception, sex organs develop and are soon visible via ultrasound.

A) fourth week
B) ninth week
C) twelfth week
D) twentieth week

Question 47

The longest period of prenatal development is the _____ period.

A) embryonic
B) fetal
C) proximodistal
D) germinal

Question 48

Compared to vaginal births, C-section births:

A) are less expensive.
B) increase the risk of complications.
C) usually take longer.
D) are less safe for the baby.

Question 49

In the United States, more than _____ of births occur via C-section.

A) 1/3
B) 1/2
C) 2/3
D) 3/4

Question 50

A woman who is pregnant is having an ultrasound done eight weeks into prenatal development. She is surprised by the size of the embryo's head when she sees the image on the screen. The doctor reassures her that this is typical and due to the _____ pattern of development.

A) proximodistal
B) cephalocaudal
C) neurogenesis
D) synaptogenesis

Question 51

Prenatally, development happens in a "near to far" pattern known as:

A) proximodistal.
B) cephalocaudal.
C) neurogenesis.
D) synaptogenesis.

Question 52

The Apgar scale is used at one minute and five minutes after birth to:

A) evaluate the newborn's sensory abilities.
B) evaluate the health of the new mother.
C) help the mother recover from childbirth.
D) evaluate the health of the newborn.

Question 53

What happens to the brain during the fetal period of development?

A) It goes through a process of regeneration.
B) It begins to form and function.
C) It increases in size and begins to wrinkle.
D) The number of neurons decreases sixfold.

Question 54

The age of viability is the time when the preterm newborn:

A) might survive outside the uterus.
B) begins to move.
C) will be born without defects.
D) has developed all its major organs.

Question 55

In a first birth, the average length of active labor is:

A) several days.
B) about 12 hours.
C) about 8 hours.
D) a few minutes.

Question 56

On average, fetuses gain about _____ pounds during the last trimester of pregnancy, which brings the average birth weight to about 7.5 pounds.

A) 1.5 pound
B) 2.5 pounds
C) 4.5 pounds
D) 6.5 pounds

Question 57

Epidurals, often used in hospital births to manage pain during childbirth, have been shown to:

A) help prevent unnecessary C-sections.
B) encourage breast-feeding from the beginning.
C) inhibit the newborn's readiness to suck.
D) induce labor.

Question 58

Harry was a preterm newborn who was born after 26 weeks of prenatal development. He now is a healthy, happy 2-year-old. Harry's ability to survive after being born so early was due in part to his reaching the:

A) term of postnatal development.
B) germinal period.
C) neurogenesis point.
D) age of viability.

Question 59

A baby is assessed at one minute after birth according to the Apgar scale. Three of the five vital signs are good, but the baby is weak and inactive and grimaces. The two vital signs the medical team is concerned about are:

A) muscle tone and heartbeat.
B) respiratory effect and color.
C) muscle tone and reflex irritability.
D) reflex irritability and respiratory effect.

Question 60

In the third stage of labor, the:

A) cervix begins to dilate.
B) baby's head moves into the birth canal.
C) mother experiences intense contractions.
D) placenta is delivered.

Question 61

Most of the known single-gene disorders are:

A) recessive.
B) dominant.
C) difficult to identify.
D) additive.

Question 62

Which country has the highest rate of C-section births in the world?

A) Egypt
B) China
C) Chile
D) the United States

Question 63

Down syndrome is also called:

A) trisomy-12.
B) trisomy-13.
C) trisomy-21.
D) trisomy-31.

Question 64

Newborn babies do NOT have reflexes designed to:

A) maintain oxygen supply.
B) maintain a constant body temperature.
C) adjust to the difference between day and night.
D) manage feeding.

Question 65

An alternative to giving birth in a hospital is to arrange to give birth at home. This option is especially popular in Europe, where home births appear to have:

A) more complications than those in hospitals.
B) fewer complications than those in hospitals.
C) an equal number of complications as those in hospitals.
D) an unknown number of complications, because no records are kept on home births.

Question 66

When infants turn their heads and suck in response to a touch on the cheek, they are demonstrating the:

A) Moro reflex.
B) rooting reflex.
C) sucking reflex.
D) thrashing reflex.

Question 67

Parents of newborn Renata are amazed at their daughter's responsiveness and reflexes when a professional administers the:

A) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale.
B) Apgar scale.
C) Child Behavioral Checklist.
D) Strange Situation.

Question 68

Jill is 3 years old. She is hyperactive and learning- disabled. Her doctor suggests that Jill's problems could be the result of prenatal exposure to _____, though he stresses that the link is not straightforward at this time.

A) chromosomal abnormalities
B) genetic abnormalities
C) cell differentiation
D) behavioral teratogens

Question 69

Kelley just had a baby and now is experiencing a sense of inadequacy and sadness. She may have:

A) couvade.
B) behavioral teratogens
C) kangaroo care.
D) postpartum depression.

Question 70

Anoxia refers to:

A) cerebral hemorrhaging.
B) signs of cerebral palsy.
C) a lack of oxygen.
D) toxic substances in the bloodstream.

Question 71

Maternal depression:

A) is normal and does not usually require any treatment.
B) is usually not noticed by the father.
C) does not seem to affect an infant.
D) can have a long-term impact on the newborn.

Question 72

Jeremy inherited _____, a genetic disorder characterized by uncontrollable tics and explosive verbal outbursts.

A) Alzheimer disease
B) Huntington disease
C) Tourette syndrome
D) major depression

Question 73

Approximately once in every _____ births, an infant is born with 45, 47, or even 48 or 49 chromosomes instead of the usual 46.

A) 50
B) 200
C) 500
D) 1,000

Question 74

Chantal and Larry are considering having a baby. Chantal's doctor recommends that they stop using recreational drugs and update their immunizations:

A) before Chantal gets pregnant.
B) as soon as Chantal knows she is pregnant.
C) anytime during the first trimester of pregnancy.
D) as soon as the baby is born.

Question 75

Rumasia places her baby on her chest so that they are skin to skin. This is called:

A) couvade.
B) a doula.
C) kangaroo care.
D) parent-infant bond.

Question 76

Studies indicate that _____ may mitigate maternal depression by in part by increasing levels of the bonding hormone oxytocin.

A) breast-feeding
B) having a home birth
C) couvade
D) epidurals

Question 77

The first days and weeks after conception (the germinal and embryonic periods) are _____ for body formation, but the entire fetal period is a _____ period for brain development.

A) sensitive; sensitive
B) critical; critical
C) sensitive; critical
D) critical; sensitive

Question 78

The phenomenon in which fathers experience symptoms of pregnancy and birth is known as:

A) postpartum depression.
B) couvade.
C) false labor.
D) the Moro reflex.

Question 79

A teratogen is any agent or condition that increases the risk for:

A) prenatal abnormalities.
B) damage to the placenta.
C) extra chromosomes.
D) male infertility.

Question 80

Julia had a baby 3 weeks ago. She has been feeling sad and inadequate as a mother, which has made caring for her newborn difficult. Julia may be experiencing:

A) post-traumatic stress disorder.
B) maternal depression.
C) generalized anxiety disorder.
D) separation anxiety.