Deck 14: Conducting Surveys and Questionnaires

Question 1

The effectiveness of a survey is enhanced by clear objectives.

Answer 1

True

Question 2

A survey is reliable if

A) it enables researchers to formulate theories, make claims and generalise findings from a sample to a larger population.
B) it consistently gives the same result when the survey is repeated under the same conditions over different periods.
C) it relies on a number of questions to assess an attitude, an issue or a problem.
D) it yields varying results when repeated under the same conditions over different periods.

Answer 2

B

Question 3

Validity refers to

A) the reliability of the survey.
B) the extent to which the survey findings may be generalised.
C) the design and survey method.
D) the objectivity of the researcher.

Answer 3

B

Question 4

A large survey conducted on behalf of an organisation should be

A) conducted online to save costs.
B) delivered by a team and coordinated by a project leader.
C) outsourced to a research organisation.
D) administered by a project manager.

Question 5

Surveys are useful to

A) inform social and economic policy.
B) influence future planning.
C) identify key issues.
D) All of the above

Question 6

Which of the following is not a variable included in a data analysis plan?

A) Age
B) Objective
C) Gender
D) Demographic

Question 7

Research into a specific issue to identify key influencing factors is best conducted via a(n)

A) survey.
B) questionnaire.
C) independent researcher.
D) interview.

Question 8

The amount of questions a survey has influences the reliability of that survey.

Question 9

An effective hypothesis

A) considers the bias of any stakeholder.
B) includes the bias of any stakeholder.
C) is designed to promote subjectivity.
D) is designed to reveal subjectivity.

Question 10

A survey is feasible if it

A) can be conducted.
B) is realistic in scope.
C) is better than the alternatives available.
D) is reliable.

Question 11

A questionnaire is a type of survey.

Question 12

Valid research measures what it hopes to measure.

Question 13

Feasibility is the degree to which a survey accurately reflects or assesses the specific issue or concept that the researcher set out to measure.

Question 14

An effective hypothesis considers the potential bias of stakeholders.

Question 15

The difference between a survey and a questionnaire is the

A) scope of investigation.
B) size of the study.
C) delivery of the findings.
D) data collection methods.

Question 16

Surveys should investigate specific questions on a particular issue rather than cover a wide range of issues.

Question 17

A plan to identify how instruments will be used in a survey, and how collected data will be tabulated and analysed is referred to as

A) a survey plan.
B) a data-mapping plan.
C) a data analysis plan.
D) an evaluation plan.

Question 18

Bias in sampling can be avoided if

A) the sampling is random.
B) the questions are objective.
C) the researchers consider the data collection carefully.
D) the sampling is stratified.

Question 19

A survey's findings need to be analysed statistically for verification before they can be considered reliable.

Question 20

Age, gender and demographics are variables.

Question 21

When considered together, a sample is wider in scope than a census.

Question 22

Questions that focus on an issue first and then become general are found in

A) a funnel sequence.
B) an inverted funnel sequence.
C) targeted questionnaires.
D) general surveys.

Question 23

Cluster sampling is usually used to divide a target population along geographical boundaries.

Question 24

A respondent who answers questions based on their responses to earlier questions in a survey is conforming to which theory?

A) Self-generated validity
B) Primacy
C) Recency
D) Reliability

Question 25

To gather information, focus groups are more widely used than interviews and questionnaires.

Question 26

The primacy effect theory posits that

A) the options at the beginning of a list will have a higher likelihood of being selected.
B) the last few items on the list will have a higher likelihood of being selected.
C) the first questions in a survey are the most important.
D) the last questions in a survey are the most important.

Question 27

Distinctions between respondents in a survey can be identified through

A) variables.
B) demographic details.
C) personal information.
D) biased responses.

Question 28

Which type of question would you include if you wish to encourage open expression?

A) Fixed-alternative question
B) Open-ended question
C) Ranked question
D) Matrix question

Question 29

Questions that start from a broad perspective and become more focused are found in

A) a funnel sequence.
B) an inverted funnel sequence.
C) targeted questionnaires.
D) general surveys.

Question 30

Questionnaires are easy to administer than interviews because

A) they are generally paper-based.
B) they are usually consistent.
C) distribution, collection and delivery can be flexible and adapted.
D) data is easier to code than if other tools had been used.

Question 31

The order of questions in a survey

A) isn't important.
B) can affect the respondent's motivation to complete it.
C) can promote subjectivity.
D) can motivate respondents.

Question 32

In a random sample,

A) everyone has the same chance of being selected for the sample.
B) a variable is the basis on which a group of people are randomly selected.
C) a sample is chosen from a selected group of people.
D) characteristics of the total population are represented.

Question 33

It is recommended that survey organisations destroy questionnaires and identifying information about respondents after responses have been collected and saved.

Question 34

Which type of questions should be asked first?

A) About personal details
B) The most important ones
C) About demographic details
D) About opinions on an issue

Question 35

A random sample ensures every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected.

Question 36

In a cluster sample,

A) everyone has the same chance of being selected for the sample.
B) a variable is the basis on which a group of people are randomly selected.
C) a sample is chosen from a selected group of people.
D) characteristics of the total population are represented.

Question 37

One significant disadvantage of interviews is that

A) it can be difficult to coordinate a time to meet.
B) respondents can be reluctant to provide personal information or opinions.
C) data is not consistent.
D) respondents take advantage of the opportunity to complain.

Question 38

Which of the following is not an advantage of conducting interviews?

A) It is suited to most of the population.
B) It offers respondents the opportunity to talk freely.
C) It is easy to administer.
D) Its structure is not as rigid as a questionnaire.

Question 39

In a stratified sample,

A) everyone has the same chance of being selected for the sample.
B) a variable is the basis on which a group of people are randomly selected.
C) a sample is chosen from a selected group of people.
D) characteristics of the total population are represented.

Question 40

A representative subset of a larger population used to draw conclusions about the larger population is known as a census.

Question 41

Question design that considers the potential for the centralist tendency will

A) use a scale that promotes the choice of extreme options.
B) use a scale that promotes the choice of safe options.
C) avoid the use of a scale that promotes the choice of extreme options.
D) avoid the use of a scale that promotes the choice of safe options.

Question 42

The options that appear at the end of a long list are more likely to be selected in a questionnaire.

Question 43

Which type of question would you include if you wish to identify a respondent's preference between two options?

A) Fixed-alternative question
B) Open-ended question
C) Ranked question
D) Word association

Question 44

'What do you think about the colour yellow?' is an example of

A) a projective question.
B) an open-ended question.
C) a contingency question.
D) a word-association question.

Question 45

'What do you not want to think about if you are not successful in a job interview?' is an example of

A) a dichotomous question.
B) a double negative question.
C) a ranked question.
D) a biased question.

Question 46

Visual formatting can be distracting and discourage respondents from completing a questionnaire.

Question 47

The purpose of pre-testing a questionnaire is to

A) identify the ease of use for respondents.
B) identify any problems for respondents or interviewers.
C) test the hypothesis on a sample.
D) test the likely response rate.

Question 48

The length of a questionnaire has an impact on the quality of the data it will collect.

Question 49

Analysts are able to interpret large amounts of data by using

A) variables.
B) codes.
C) demographics.
D) samples.

Question 50

The format of a questionnaire is important because

A) data will be more accurate if respondents find it easy to read and understand.
B) respondents might give up if they don't understand what is required of them.
C) respondents are more likely to complete the questionnaire if it is easy and quick to complete.
D) respondents prefer a questionnaire that is appealing to read.

Question 51

Even well-written questions should have instructions.

Question 52

A good rule of thumb is to use three fonts in a questionnaire.

Question 53

Questions that ask respondents to give one answer to two questions asked as one are

A) potentially confusing.
B) open-barrelled questions.
C) dichotomous questions.
D) projective questions.

Question 54

Leading questions are

A) questions that pre-dispose the respondent to a particular response.
B) the first questions on a questionnaire.
C) biased questions.
D) those that provide useful guidance to a respondent.

Question 55

A questionnaire that requires respondents to consider aspects of the topic prior to providing more specific responses would order questions as per

A) a funnel sequence.
B) an inverted funnel sequence.
C) a ranked structure.
D) an open-ended structure.

Question 56

Open-ended questions are easier to categorise, analyse and code.

Question 57

Which five areas are considered when designing a questionnaire?

A) Style, instructions, question sequence, writing, pre-test
B) Format, instructions, question sequence, question type, pre-test
C) Format, introductions, question sequence, question styles, writing style
D) Function, instructions, question sequence, question type, pre-test

Question 58

Questions should be aligned with topic headings so participants are clear about each question's intent.

Question 59

Sensitive questions should be placed at the beginning of the survey.

Question 60

A question that asks respondents to select from two options is referred to as

A) a fixed-alternative question.
B) a multichotomous question.
C) a choice question.
D) a dichotomous question.

Question 61

Someone who remembers the last few items of a long list on a questionnaire is affected by the recency effect.

Question 62

Survey analysis should consider factors outside the scope of the survey.

Question 63

In a written report, a detailed explanation of the hypothesis is contained in the

A) introduction.
B) methods section.
C) results section.
D) conclusion.

Question 64

Data triangulation involves analysing the same data multiple times to ensure understanding and accurate analysis.

Question 65

Bias can be avoided in the evaluation stage by

A) confirming that the methodology doesn't promote or foster bias.
B) avoiding assumptions about causal relationships.
C) examining responses for validity.
D) all of the above.

Question 66

Writing style impacts on the ability of readers to understand the research findings and their implications.

Question 67

Once written, the first step in conducting a questionnaire is to analyse the responses from the pre-test.

Question 68

Negative nonverbal and verbal cues from an interviewer can influence respondents' willingness to participate in an interview and the quality of their answers and can inadvertently lead to bias.

Question 69

Double-barrelled questions are useful for extracting two sets of information from the one question.

Question 70

An observation that lies at an abnormal distance from other values in a random sample from a population is known as an outlier.

Question 71

The different approaches of interviewers are unlikely to influence the responses of the respondent.

Question 72

Probing questions are used in an interview when

A) the interviewer is dissatisfied with the response.
B) the interviewer is seeking a specific response.
C) the interviewer wants to know more about the respondent.
D) the interviewer is seeking more information from a response.

Question 73

An introduction contains about 125 words, the hypothesis or hypotheses and a concise picture of the research.

Question 74

Writing style is particularly important in research report writing because

A) discussing research findings can be complex.
B) alignment between the research intent, method and findings demonstrates the report's credibility.
C) research is usually accountable.
D) a research report needs to be transparent.

Question 75

Research analysis and findings can be defended by ensuring the methods of research are clearly defined and reported.