Deck 9: Group Processes

Question 1

Lynn & Latane (1984) examined the influence of group size on the size of tip left in a restaurant and they found

A) group size had no significant impact on size of tip.
B) single diners left the most generous tips.
C) as group size increased, generosity of tips increased.
D) up to a group size of 8, generosity of tip increased proportionally.

Answer 1

single diners left the most generous tips.

Question 2

According to the definitions given in the textbook, which of the following would not be considered as a group?

A) a union at an organization
B) a sports team
C) passengers in a train compartment
D) a choir

Answer 2

passengers in a train compartment

Question 3

Norman Triplett (1898) ran early experiments that showed performance improved when done in the presence of others; a phenomenon known as

A) social loafing.
B) social facilitation.
C) cohesion.
D) deindividuation.

Answer 3

social facilitation.

Question 4

Grace is learning to play the piano. She has noticed that when she is practicing a piece of music by herself, she plays it just fine. When her parents are in the house, she makes many mistakes. This is an example of

A) social inhibition.
B) social facilitation.
C) social loafing.
D) social expertise.

Question 5

Robert Zajonc's research on social facilitation expanded early research by including the factor of

A) size of group.
B) gender of performer.
C) impact of the task difficulty.
D) sequence of the task.

Question 6

Arthur has been practicing foul shooting for over 8 years and is proficient at making the shot. According to Zajonc's theory of social facilitation, when Arthur needs to shoot a foul shot during the big game, in the presence of a crowd, he should

A) perform better.
B) perform worse.
C) his performance should not be affected by the crowd.
D) not enough information is available to make a prediction.

Question 7

The presence of others leads to arousal, which influences performance, for all of the following reasons except

A) evaluation apprehension.
B) mere presence.
C) distraction.
D) conscientiousness.

Question 8

Jessica discovered that she walked from her car to class more quickly when others were also walking as opposed to very early when she walked alone. One explanation for the arousal that may be affecting her walking speed is

A) mere presence.
B) evaluation apprehension.
C) distraction.
D) morning slump.

Question 9

In a study conducted by Zajonc et al. (1969), social facilitation was demonstrated using cockroaches. In this study the researcher found

A) the cockroaches allowed to perform alone completed the maze more quickly.
B) the cockroaches that performed in the presence of other cockroaches, completed the maze less quickly.
C) the cockroaches that performed in the presence of other cockroaches, completed the maze more quickly.
D) the cockroaches that were "cheered" on by the lab staff, completed the maze fastest.

Question 10

Cottrell et al. (1968) conducted research on the effect of arousal on performance. Participants were asked to pronounce nonsense words and their performance was measured in three different conditions. Which of the following was not a finding of this study?

A) When they were alone, participants were not the most accurate.
B) Participants in the "mere presence" condition were not the most accurate.
C) Participants in the "mere presence" condition were the most accurate.
D) Participants in the "audience" condition; where others were present and could evaluate the performance, were the most accurate.

Question 11

In terms of social facilitation theory, several researchers have demonstrated the disadvantage of playing high stakes games on the home field due to

A) larger crowds present at the "big games."
B) distractions that are not present when playing on the away field.
C) intense fan pressure, so players experience evaluation apprehension.
D) the "mere presence" of crowds.

Question 12

Researchers on social facilitation point out that teen drivers have significantly more crashes when others are in the car, due to

A) mere presence.
B) evaluation apprehension.
C) distraction.
D) lack of experience.

Question 13

When an individual in a group setting reduces their work effort because the group efforts are pooled, the individual is engaging in

A) social facilitation.
B) social reduction.
C) social effort.
D) social loafing.

Question 14

In social loafing, all of the following conditions are evident, except

A) group members are working on a common goal.
B) group effort is dependent on individual responsibility.
C) individuals are not accountable for their performance.
D) individual members' performance is not measured or evaluated.

Question 15

Latane et al. (1979) had participants in a soundproof room and asked them to cheer and clap as loud as they could. Participants were either alone, or in groups of 2, 4, and 6. They found that participants, individually, produced the most noise when alone and the least noise when in the group of 6. This research demonstrates the principle of

A) social facilitation.
B) social loafing.
C) social effort.
D) social reduction.

Question 16

Many students dislike small group projects in class because at least one group member will not participate at the same level as the others. These low performers are demonstrating the principle of

A) social effort.
B) social reduction.
C) social loafing.
D) social facilitation.

Question 17

Research has demonstrated that in large groups, diners will tip less than single or smaller groups. This is an example of

A) social loafing.
B) social reduction.
C) social facilitation.
D) social effort.

Question 18

Which of the following is not a factor in social loafing?

A) task importance
B) group cohesion
C) identifiable contributions
D) impact of contributions

Question 19

According to the collective effort model, individuals are motivated to exert efforts in group settings in all of the following conditions, except

A) when they believe that their individual efforts will make a difference in the group's success.
B) when they believe that the others in the group will be working with them in the future.
C) when they believe their individual efforts are identifiable.
D) when they believe they will experience positive outcomes.

Question 20

Realizing that no one would know who had contributed to the final group effort, Shea decided to engage in social loafing, demonstrating the influence of

A) identifiable contributions.
B) group cohesion.
C) task importance.
D) impact of contributions.

Question 21

Suzanne and every member of her group knew that if they each did their best, the group could win the award. Social loafing was therefore diminished based on the influence of

A) impact of contributions.
B) task importance.
C) group cohesion.
D) identifiable contributions.

Question 22

Professor Edwards noticed that the psychology majors worked harder on their Introduction to Psychology group projects than other students in the class. She attributed their lack of social loafing to

A) group cohesion.
B) identifiable contributions.
C) impact of contribution.
D) importance of task.

Question 23

If the group task is very important to you individually, you may work harder to make up for any social loafing from other group members; an idea known as

A) social cohesion.
B) social restitution.
C) social compensation.
D) social facilitation.

Question 24

One positive result of group processes is that groups with the attribute of ____________________ tend to perform better.

A) deindividuation
B) social loafing
C) group cohesion
D) social facilitation

Question 25

Janna plays the clarinet in a school band. Her band has high morale and Janna is close to many of the other members. The band has won several awards. Janna's band seems to have high

A) collective effort.
B) social loafing.
C) deindividuation.
D) group cohesion.

Question 26

The relationship between cohesion and performance is greatest when the team is

A) highly interdependent.
B) led by more than one individual.
C) less interdependent.
D) together for long periods of time.

Question 27

Riaz made more friends quickly at his new school because he participated in the highly successful soccer program. Riaz enjoyed his new friendships because the team exhibited

A) social loafing.
B) cohesion.
C) social facilitation.
D) deindividuation.

Question 28

When people do better in a group than alone, it is referred to as

A) cognitive appraisal.
B) social facilitation.
C) deindividuation.
D) social loafing.

Question 29

According to social facilitation theory, what happens to performance on new or difficult tasks when others are around compared to when there is no one else around?

A) improved performance
B) the same performance
C) worse performance
D) Social facilitation theory does not discuss performance in group settings.

Question 30

Which of the following is not one of the explanations for social facilitation?

A) task importance
B) evaluation apprehension
C) distraction
D) mere presence of others

Question 31

Which of the following is true regarding the "homefield advantage"?

A) Teams usually perform better away.
B) Teams usually perform better at home.
C) Teams tend to perform badly at home during decisive games.
D) Both b and c.

Question 32

In Markus' (1978) research in which participants had to do an easy or hard task alone or before an audience, what was found?

A) The easier task took LESS time with an audience than when alone.
B) The harder task LESS time with an audience than when alone.
C) The harder task MORE time with an audience than when alone.
D) Both a and c.

Question 33

Jeremy's car has broken down in the middle of an intersection. He begins to push it out of the way on his own. After a minute, four people come over and help him push. What is likely to happen to his pushing effort when the others are helping compared to when he was alone?

A) He pushes harder.
B) He pushes the same.
C) He pushes less hard.
D) He stops pushing all together and steps back to watch.

Question 34

Which of the following is not an element of the collective effort model?

A) the impacts of one's own contribution
B) identifiable contributions
C) task importance
D) distraction

Question 35

When a task is very important to you and you are performing the task in a group, ______________ is likely to occur.

A) social discrepancy
B) social facilitation
C) social loafing
D) social compensation

Question 36

In Plaks & Higgins' (2000) study on social compensation, what was found?

A) Participants gave more correct answers to verbal tasks when they thought they had a male partner.
B) Participants gave more correct answers to verbal tasks when they thought they had a female partner.
C) Participants gave more correct answers to math tasks when they thought they had a male partner.
D) None of these.

Question 37

In what situation does high cohesion typically lead to better performance?

A) in all group sports
B) mainly in sports that are highly interactive between the group members
C) mainly in sports that are less interactive between the group members
D) in no group sports

Question 38

The presence of an evaluating audience is a stronger influence on performance than simply the presence of others.

Question 39

To diminish social loafing in a group project, one strategy would be to publicly identify who completed each part of the project.

Question 40

People who believe their efforts are necessary for the success of the group tend to engage in social loafing.

Question 41

A winning golf team is more likely to experience group cohesion than a winning hockey team.

Question 42

When people do better on particular tasks in the presence of a group compared to when they are alone, they are experiencing _______ _______.

Question 43

The group-produced reduction to individual output on easy tasks where contributions are pooled is referred to as _______ _______.

Question 44

The _______ _______ model describes people's motivation to exert effort in group tasks when individual contributions are identifiable and essential to the success of the group, and there will be positive outcomes.

Question 45

If a project is important to you, you may work harder to make up for social loafing by others; an idea referred to as _______ _______/

Question 46

Groups of adolescents will often make foolish and risky decisions that individuals would not make alone. This is an example of

A) risky shift.
B) adolescent shift.
C) risky business.
D) adolescent risk.

Question 47

When the jurors were polled individually, they all indicated a judgment award that was lower than the final group decision. This is an example of

A) juror shift.
B) group polarization.
C) groupthink.
D) group risk.

Question 48

In their initial discussions about health care reform there were several group members who expressed reluctance and questions about the proposed legislation. By the end of the meeting, the group suggested an outright rejection of any efforts to reform health care; an example of

A) right shift.
B) left shift.
C) group polarization.
D) groupthink.

Question 49

Group discussion can lead to group polarization in all of the following conditions, except

A) individuals will seek out arguments that support their initial viewpoint.
B) repeating arguments on a single position leads to a more extreme position.
C) individuals ask for and listen to arguments that support their position.
D) persuasive arguments for opposing positions will lead to a shift in the initial position.

Question 50

Baron, et al. (1996) asked female college students to rate attractiveness of magazine photos of men and then shared their rating with a group of others. Woman's ratings became more extreme after learning that others shared the same opinion as they do. The findings suggest that polarization occurred in this study because

A) participants agreed with group norms.
B) participants heard persuasive arguments.
C) participant ratings changed based on the mere presence of others.
D) participants became distracted by the presence of others.

Question 51

When members of the group keep discrepant views to themselves so as to avoid rejection from the group, the decision making is likely influenced by

A) group polarization.
B) consensus decisions.
C) groupthink.
D) consensus thinking.

Question 52

A group that has _____________________ is characterized by a tendency by members to seek out consensus, concurrence and unanimity, as well as often stifling dissenting views.

A) consensus thinking
B) groupthink
C) consensus decisions
D) group polarization

Question 53

Which of the following is not a factor in groupthink?

A) learning group norms
B) illusion of vulnerability
C) collective rationalization
D) belief in inherent morality

Question 54

Which of the following is not a factor in groupthink?

A) self-censorship creating an illusion of unanimity
B) decreasing self-awareness
C) stereotyped views of out-groups
D) direct pressure on dissenters

Question 55

When the group thinks it is doing right in all circumstances, they are vulnerable to

A) groupthink.
B) consensus thinking.
C) group polarization.
D) consensus decisions.

Question 56

One of the factors that led to the escalation of the Vietnam War was the belief that democracy was inherently better than Communism; a factor in groupthink known as

A) collective rationalization.
B) overestimation of morality.
C) closed-mindedness.
D) pressure toward uniformity.

Question 57

In 1986, the space shuttle Columbia exploded after take-off. Some evidence suggests that high-level NASA administrators ignored or discounted lower-level employees' safety concerns about the space shuttle. Ignoring dissenting views from outgroup members is a factor in groupthink known as

A) pressure toward uniformity.
B) collective rationalization.
C) overestimation of morality.
D) closed-mindedness.

Question 58

Highly cohesive groups with similar backgrounds may fall prey to this factor of groupthink.

A) illusion of invulnerability
B) overestimation of morality
C) closed-mindedness
D) pressure toward uniformity

Question 59

Which of the following is not a solution to groupthink?

A) encourage open contributions from all group members
B) encourage persuasive arguments
C) groups should deliberately recruit diverse membership
D) provide training about group decision-making

Question 60

Group polarization refers to the tendencies of group members to become _____________ following group discussion.

A) more conservative
B) more extreme
C) less extreme
D) more risky

Question 61

When groups make decisions compared to when individuals make decisions, what happens?

A) The group tends to be more risky than the individual.
B) The group tends to be just as risky as the individual.
C) The group tends to be less risky than the individual.
D) All of these happen, depending on the gender composition of the group.

Question 62

In Baron et al.'s (1996) study in which female participants rated the attractiveness of men's photos and were given group feedback about their ratings, _______________ was to increased attractiveness ratings in the second round as _____________ was to decreased attractiveness ratings in the second round (both compared to no feedback).

A) high group cohesion; low group cohesion
B) group agreement; group disagreement
C) low group cohesion; high group cohesion
D) group disagreement; group agreement

Question 63

Which of the following has not been found to occur more often in diverse juries as compared to all-White juries?

A) Citing of more case facts
B) Less in-depth discussions
C) More likely to discuss the impact of racism on the trial
D) Fewer errors

Question 64

The U.S. decision to invade Iraq and the escalation of the Vietnam War are described in the textbook as examples of what social psychology concept?

A) social loafing
B) social facilitation
C) cognitive appraisal
D) groupthink

Question 65

Which of the following is not one of the symptoms of groupthink?

A) heightening of self-awareness
B) closed-mindedness towards views of outgroup members
C) illusion of invulnerability
D) belief in inherent morality

Question 66

Reggie is part of the town council. They have all decided that it would be best to build a new road that would bypass the downtown. A woman comes to a town council meeting with scientific evidence that their road's planned route would destroy the remaining ecosystem for a flock of endangered birds. Reggie and the other town council members dismiss her evidence without even considering it. What factor related to groupthink are they mainly showing in this example?

A) overestimated morality
B) stereotyped views of out-groups
C) closed-mindedness
D) self-censorship to create the illusion of unanimity

Question 67

How can groupthink be avoided?

A) Recruit diverse members
B) Encourage constructive criticism
C) Encourage open contributions
D) All of these

Question 68

In Turner et al.'s (1992) study of automobile production workers, which of the following was found?

A) Low-cohesive groups made better decisions than high-cohesive groups when threat levels were low.
B) High-cohesive groups made better decisions than low-cohesive groups when threat levels were high.
C) High-cohesive groups made better decisions than low-cohesive groups when threat levels were low.
D) None of these.

Question 69

Individuals are willing to make riskier decisions alone than groups are willing to make together.

Question 70

Group members listen to and respond to arguments that support their position; causing a more extreme position due to group polarization.

Question 71

Group norms can help to shift the initial position of individual group members to an opposing position though discussion and group polarization.

Question 72

The faulty decision-making process that contributed to the U.S. decision to invade Iraq was group polarization.

Question 73

When the initial tendencies of group members become more extreme following a group discussion, this phenomenon is referred to as _______ _______.

Question 74

The process by which groups tend to make riskier decisions than individuals would make alone is referred to as _______ _______.

Question 75

__________ is a group decision-making style characterized by excessive tendency among group members to seek concurrence, consensus, and unanimity, not making the best decisions.

Question 76

Which of the following is not a model of leadership?

A) trait model
B) transactional versus transformational leadership
C) consensus model
D) contingency model

Question 77

The model of leadership that describes good leaders as emerging based on specific personality characteristics is known as the

A) trait model.
B) transactional versus transformational leadership model.
C) consensus model.
D) contingency model.

Question 78

Leaders who foster trust among group members, build excitement about higher-level group goals and examine new approaches for problem solving are known as

A) "great person" leaders.
B) transactional leaders.
C) transformational leaders.
D) contingent leaders.

Question 79

Leadership that emphasizes the importance of having a match between the leader's traits and the demands of the situation is known as

A) trait models of leadership.
B) contingency models of leadership.
C) transactional leadership.
D) transformational leadership.

Question 80

Task-oriented leaders and people-oriented leaders are major components of the

A) trait model of leadership.
B) consensus model of leadership.
C) contingency model of leadership.
D) transformational model of leadership.