Exam 8: Pathophysiology
Exam 1: Emergency Medical Care Systems, Research, and Public Health42 Questions
Exam 2: Workforce Safety and Wellness of the Emt56 Questions
Exam 3: Medical, Legal, and Ethical Issues60 Questions
Exam 4: Documentation44 Questions
Exam 5: Communication42 Questions
Exam 6: Lifting and Moving Patients37 Questions
Exam 7: Anatomy, Physiology, and Medical Terminology86 Questions
Exam 8: Pathophysiology74 Questions
Exam 9: Life Span Development34 Questions
Exam 10: Airway Management, Artificial Ventilation, and Oxygenation120 Questions
Exam 11: Baseline Vital Signs, Monitoring Devices, and History Taking123 Questions
Exam 12: Scene Size-Up25 Questions
Exam 13: Patient Assessment104 Questions
Exam 14: Pharmacology Medication and Administration38 Questions
Exam 15: Shock and Resuscitation89 Questions
Exam 16: Respiratory Emergencies85 Questions
Exam 17: Cardiovascular Emergencies106 Questions
Exam 18: Altered Mental Status, Stroke, and Headache63 Questions
Exam 19: Seizures and Syncope57 Questions
Exam 20: Acute Diabetic Emergencies64 Questions
Exam 21: Anaphylactic Reactions53 Questions
Exam 22: Toxicologic Emergencies102 Questions
Exam 23: Abdominal, Hematologic, Gynecologic, Genitourinary, and Renal Emergencies116 Questions
Exam 24: Environmental Emergencies85 Questions
Exam 25: Submersion Incidents: Drowning and Diving Emergencies37 Questions
Exam 26: Behavioral Emergencies49 Questions
Exam 27: Trauma Overview: the Trauma Patient and the Trauma System41 Questions
Exam 28: Bleeding and Soft Tissue Trauma74 Questions
Exam 29: Burns45 Questions
Exam 30: Musculoskeletal Trauma and Nontraumatic Fractures45 Questions
Exam 31: Head Trauma57 Questions
Exam 32: Spinal Column and Spinal Cord Trauma59 Questions
Exam 33: Eye, Face, and Neck Trauma41 Questions
Exam 34: Chest Trauma42 Questions
Exam 35: Abdominal and Genitourinary Trauma34 Questions
Exam 36: Multisystem Trauma and Trauma in Special Patient Populations47 Questions
Exam 37: Obstetrics and Care of the Newborn91 Questions
Exam 38: Pediatrics100 Questions
Exam 39: Geriatrics58 Questions
Exam 40: Patients With Special Challenges66 Questions
Exam 41: The Combat Veteran23 Questions
Exam 42: Ambulance Operations and Air Medical Response30 Questions
Exam 43: Gaining Access and Patient Extrication21 Questions
Exam 44: Hazardous Materials20 Questions
Exam 45: Multiple-Casualty Incidents and Incident Management29 Questions
Exam 46: Ems Response to Terrorism Involving Weapons of Mass Destruction27 Questions
Exam 47: ALS-Assist Skills45 Questions
Exam 48: Advanced Airway Management49 Questions
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A patient has failure of the left side of his heart. Consequently, the blood is backing up into the pulmonary artery and spilling out into the lung tissue, causing him to be short of breath and moderately hypoxic. The EMT should recognize this condition as a product of:
(Multiple Choice)
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Assessment of a hypoxic patient with a history of lung disease reveals him to be using well-developed accessory muscles to exhale. As an EMT, you should recognize that the patient:
(Multiple Choice)
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A young patient is experiencing epiglottitis (swelling of the epiglottis). He is working hard to breathe, has stridorous respirations, and is extremely hypoxic. His skin is cyanotic and pulse rapid but strong. Which of the following is most likely causing the poor delivery of oxygen to the cells?
(Multiple Choice)
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On scene, a 43-year-old male states that he has a history of liver failure and does not produce enough of the protein albumin. Given this condition, which one of the following would you expect?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient with a high fever has an accelerated metabolism and is producing abnormally high amounts of carbon dioxide at the cellular level. To compensate, which one of the following will occur?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient with liver disease suffers from a low platelet count. Which of the following would the EMT directly correlate to this condition?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the protective mechanism underlying a narrowed pulse pressure?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following medical conditions would impair a patient's respiratory status by directly damaging the central chemoreceptors?
(Multiple Choice)
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Under normal circumstances, carbon dioxide is excreted from the body through the:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following is required for normal perfusion to occur?
(Multiple Choice)
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The body will compensate for a decrease in cardiac output by:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which one of the following would most likely cause a patient to have a simple episode of syncope (fainting)?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following statements would be true of a patient who relies on the hypoxic drive to breathe?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient's SpO₂ increased from 89% to 95% after he received a bronchodilating drug for his asthma. Where did the patient's problem most likely originate?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following best describes the ventilation/perfusion ratio?
(Multiple Choice)
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A 20-year-old female has called 911 for chest pain. On scene you find that she has shallow breathing with an SpO₂ reading of 91% on room air. She states she was in a car crash yesterday and diagnosed in the hospital with broken ribs. She says that her pain is right where the ribs are broken and rates it a 10/10. Breath sounds are present bilaterally. In this situation, the EMT should attribute the hypoxia to which one of the following?
(Multiple Choice)
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The EMT would most likely see a narrowed pulse pressure in a patient who:
(Multiple Choice)
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Which one of the following best describes the concept of afterload?
(Multiple Choice)
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A patient's lungs are full of fluid and cannot transfer oxygen to the blood. As a result, she is in anaerobic metabolism. She has a decreased level of consciousness with a patent upper airway and inadequate respirations. Her pulse is rapid and weak. Which one of the following prehospital treatments would best address this situation?
(Multiple Choice)
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