Exam 18: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange
Exam 1: History of Respiratory Care28 Questions
Exam 2: Quality and Evidence-Based Respiratory Care29 Questions
Exam 3: Patient Safety, Communication, and Record Keeping52 Questions
Exam 4: Principles of Infection Control32 Questions
Exam 5: Ethical and Legal Implications of Practice36 Questions
Exam 6: Physical Principles of Respiratory Care89 Questions
Exam 7: Computer Applications in Respiratory Care26 Questions
Exam 8: The Respiratory System131 Questions
Exam 9: The Cardiovascular System65 Questions
Exam 10: Ventilation78 Questions
Exam 11: Gas Exchange and Transport85 Questions
Exam 12: Solutions, Body Fluids, and Electrolytes95 Questions
Exam 13: Acid-Base Balance97 Questions
Exam 14: Regulation of Breathing48 Questions
Exam 15: Bedside Assessment of the Patient95 Questions
Exam 16: Interpretation of Clinical Laboratory Data30 Questions
Exam 17: Interpreting the Electrocardiogram34 Questions
Exam 18: Analysis and Monitoring of Gas Exchange125 Questions
Exam 19: Pulmonary Function Testing67 Questions
Exam 20: A Review of Thoracic Imaging46 Questions
Exam 21: Nutrition Assessment42 Questions
Exam 22: Pulmonary Infections54 Questions
Exam 23: Obstructive Lung Disease: Copd, Asthma, and Related Diseases57 Questions
Exam 24: Interstitial Lung Disease54 Questions
Exam 25: Pleural Diseases48 Questions
Exam 26: Pulmonary Vascular Disease60 Questions
Exam 27: Acute Lung Injury, Pulmonary Edema, and Multiple System Organ32 Questions
Exam 28: Lung Cancer30 Questions
Exam 29: Neuromuscular and Other Diseases of the Chest Wall32 Questions
Exam 30: Disorders of Sleep31 Questions
Exam 31: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Disorders88 Questions
Exam 32: Airway Pharmacology76 Questions
Exam 33: Airway Management119 Questions
Exam 34: Emergency Cardiovascular Life Support74 Questions
Exam 35: Humidity and Bland Aerosol Therapy112 Questions
Exam 36: Aerosol Drug Therapy123 Questions
Exam 37: Storage and Delivery of Medical Gases80 Questions
Exam 38: Medical Gas Therapy97 Questions
Exam 39: Lung Expansion Therapy63 Questions
Exam 40: Bronchial Hygiene Therapy97 Questions
Exam 41: Respiratory Failure and the Need for Ventilatory Support50 Questions
Exam 42: Mechanical Ventilators80 Questions
Exam 43: Physiology of Ventilatory Support90 Questions
Exam 44: Initiating and Adjusting Ventilatory Support103 Questions
Exam 45: Noninvasive Positive Pressure Ventilation50 Questions
Exam 46: Monitoring and Management of the Patient in the Intensive Care Unit55 Questions
Exam 47: Discontinuing Ventilatory Support66 Questions
Exam 48: Neonatal and Pediatric Respiratory Care37 Questions
Exam 49: Patient Education and Health Promotion19 Questions
Exam 50: Cardiopulmonary Rehabilitation65 Questions
Exam 51: Respiratory Care in Alternative Settings138 Questions
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Before attaching a transcutaneous blood gas monitor sensor to a patient, what should you do?
I.Provide a specified warm-up time and set the probe temperature.
II.Check the membrane and prepare a sensor with an adhesive ring and gel.
III.Prepare the monitoring site (remove excess hair and clean the skin).
(Multiple Choice)
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Tissue injuries to be on guard for at the site of transcutaneous blood gas electrode placement include all of the following except which one?
(Multiple Choice)
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All of the following can result in falsely high HbO2 readings with a laboratory hemoximeter except:
(Multiple Choice)
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How often should blood gas calibration verification by control media take place?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which blood gas analyzer electrode uses a separate reference electrode?
(Multiple Choice)
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Before a sample of capillary blood is taken, what should you do to the site?
I.warmed to 42° C for 10 minutes
II.squeezed lightly until blanched
III.cleaned with an antiseptic solution
(Multiple Choice)
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All of the following are common sites for transcutaneous blood gas electrode placement except the:
(Multiple Choice)
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The advantage that point-of-care testing has over traditional laboratory testing is that point-of-care testing:
(Multiple Choice)
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While checking a galvanic fuel cell O2 analyzer, you determine that the device fails to read 100% when exposed to pure O2. Which of the following actions would be the proper first step?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following describes the correct procedure for an Allen test?
(Multiple Choice)
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At the very beginning of exhalation, the PETCO2 normally should be at what level?
(Multiple Choice)
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To avoid transmission of blood-borne diseases when handling a used needle, what should you do?
I.Never recap the needle without a safety device (or scoop method).
II.Never handle the needle with both hands, or point it toward the body.
III.Never bend, break, or remove the needle from the syringe by hand.
IV.Always dispose of the syringe or needle in a proper sharps container.
(Multiple Choice)
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Before taking a spot reading with a pulse oximeter, what should you do?
I.Allow sufficient response time.
II.Set the low alarm to 88% to 90%.
III.Confirm adequacy of pulse signal.
(Multiple Choice)
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Continuous SpO2 monitoring (versus a spot check) is indicated in all of the following situations except:
(Multiple Choice)
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All of the following are TRUE about capillary blood gas sampling except:
(Multiple Choice)
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To ensure that the output of a blood gas analyzer is both accurate and linear across the range of measured values, a calibration procedure must measure what?
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the normal range for end-tidal CO2 as measured by capnography?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following guidelines should you adhere to when performing pulse oximetry?
I.Never mix different sensors among different devices.
II.Make sure that the sensors are the correct size and are properly applied.
III.Avoid using pulse oximetry to monitor hyperoxia in neonates.
IV.Whenever possible, validate the initial SpO2 against the actual SaO2.
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following would you expect to occur if too much heparin was used in gathering an ABG sample from a patient breathing room air?
(Multiple Choice)
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