Exam 30: Structural Models of Default Risk

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Credit-scoring models primarily rely on:

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Suppose the current value of a firm's assets is $100 million, and the value of equity in the firm is $40 million. Suppose too that the firm has only one issue of debt outstanding: zero-coupon debt with a maturity of three years, and a face value of $70 million. Finally, suppose that the risk-free rate of interest is 4% (continuously-compounded terms) for all maturities. Assuming that firm value evolves according to a lognormal diffusion (as in Merton, 1974), what is the volatility of the firm's assets?

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Based on your understanding of structural models of default, equity holders are better off when, holding all else constant

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The Merton (1974) model assumes that the value of the firm is distributed

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Equity and debt in a firm are option-like mainly because

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Suppose that the asset value of a firm evolves according to a lognormal diffusion, as in Merton (1974). The current value of the firm's assets is $100 million, and its volatility is 24.24%. Suppose too that the firm has only one issue of debt outstanding: zero-coupon debt with a maturity of three years, and a face value of $70 million. Finally, suppose that the risk-free rate of interest is 4% (continuously-compounded terms) for all maturities. What is the risk-neutral probability of the firm defaulting at maturity of the debt?

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A firm's current value is £ 1 billion . The firm has one-year zero-coupon debt outstanding with a face value of £ 0.6 billion. What is the one-year "distance to default" (in the Moody's KMV approach) if the standard deviation of firm value is 30%?

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The structural model framework is a parsimonious one, yet needs to accommodate complex capital structures. Which of the following approaches is not a simplification of the complexity of the real-world situation?

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The Geske model generalizes the Merton model to allow for

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Given a firm value of V=100V = 100 , debt face value of D=60D = 60 , asset volatility of σ=30%\sigma = 30 \% , and a risk free rate of r=3%r = 3 \% , conditional on default, the expected recovery rate in the Merton model for debt of maturity five years will be:

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Altman's Z-score model may be used to:

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Unobserved firm volatility is an obstacle in the implementation of the Merton model. One popular way to overcome this is to

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Which of the following statements best describes the relation of the real-world ( PP ) and risk-neutral ( QQ ) probabilities of default?

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An obstacle in implementation of the Merton model is that

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Suppose that a firm's value VV grows over one year at a simple rate R^\circ R that has a mean of 0.100.10 and a variance of 0.040.04 . If the firm's current value is $10 billion and it has one-year zero-coupon debt of face value $7 billion, what is the probability that the firm's assets will not be sufficient to repay the debt at the end of the year? Assume the firm value at the end of the year is normally distributed.

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Zero-coupon debt value rises when, ceteris paribus

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Which of the following scenarios is most likely to lead to an increase in a firm's credit spreads?

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A firm's current value is $10 billion. The firm has one-year zero-coupon debt with face value $7 billion. The standard deviation of firm asset value is $2 billion. What is the firm's "distance-to-default" as measured by the Moody's KMV approach?

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In order to obtain the probability of default in the Merton (1974) model under the real-world probability measure, we need to make the following change in calculating N(d2)N \left( d _ { 2 } \right) in the formula :

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Zero-coupon risky debt value in a firm is equal to

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