Exam 3: Labor Productivity and Comparative Advantage: the Ricardian Model

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As a result of trade, specialization in the Ricardian model tends to be

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In the Ricardian model, comparative advantage is likely to be due to

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Many countries in sub-Saharan Africa have very low labor productivities in many sectors, for example in manufacturing and agriculture. They often despair of even trying to attempt to build their industries unless it is done in an autarkic context, behind protectionist walls because they do not believe they can compete with more productive industries abroad. Discuss this issue in the context of the Ricardian model of comparative advantage.

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Use the information in the table below to answer the following questions. Use the information in the table below to answer the following questions.   (a) Does either country have an absolute advantage in the production of wheat or beef? Explain. (b) What is the opportunity cost of wheat in each country? (c) What is the opportunity cost of beef in each country? (d) Analyze comparative advantage and opportunities for trade between the U.S. and Argentina. (a) Does either country have an absolute advantage in the production of wheat or beef? Explain. (b) What is the opportunity cost of wheat in each country? (c) What is the opportunity cost of beef in each country? (d) Analyze comparative advantage and opportunities for trade between the U.S. and Argentina.

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If the United States' production possibility frontier was flatter to the widget axis, whereas Germany's was flatter to the butter axis, we know that

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We know that in antiquity, China exported silk because no one in any other country knew how to produce this product. From this information we know that

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  -Given the information in the table above, if it is ascertained that Foreign uses prison-slave labor to produce its exports, then home should -Given the information in the table above, if it is ascertained that Foreign uses prison-slave labor to produce its exports, then home should

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It is generally claimed that a movement from autarky to free trade consistent with Ricardian comparative advantage increases the economic welfare of each of the trade partners. However, it may be demonstrated that under certain circumstances, not everyone in each country is made better off. Illustrate such a case.

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In 1975, wage levels in South Korea were roughly 5% of those in the United States. It is obvious that if the United States had allowed Korean goods to be freely imported into the United States at that time, this would have caused devastation to the standard of living in the United States, because no producer in this country could possibly compete with such low wages. Discuss this assertion in the context of the Ricardian model of comparative advantage.

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A nation engaging in trade according to the Ricardian model will find its consumption bundle

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Given the information in the table above, Foreign's opportunity cost of widgets is

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  -Given the information in the table above. What is the opportunity cost of Cloth in terms of Widgets in Foreign? -Given the information in the table above. What is the opportunity cost of Cloth in terms of Widgets in Foreign?

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How does the two-good, two-country version of the Ricardian model differ from the two-country, many-good model in terms of the determination which goods are produced and exported by each country?

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Given the information in the table above, if the world equilibrium price of widgets were 4 cloth, then

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The growth of clothing exports originating in Bangladesh is the result of the

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A country engaging in trade according to the principles of comparative advantage gains from trade because it

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Suppose the United States' production possibility frontier was flatter to the widget axis, whereas Germany's was flatter to the butter axis. We now learn that the German mark sharply depreciates against the U.S. dollar. We now know that

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The Ricardian model attributes the gains from trade associated with the principle of comparative advantage result to

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When compared with China, the growth of clothing exports originating in Bangladesh is the result of

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The evidence cited in the chapter using the examples of the East Asia New Industrializing Countries suggests that as international productivities converge, so do international wage levels. Why do you suppose this happened for the East Asian NICs? In light of your answer, what do you think is likely to happen to the relative wages (relative to those in the United States) of China in the coming decade? Explain your reasoning.

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