Question 1

Which of the following would be considered to be inotropic drugs?

Accepted Answer

A)  Digoxin, dopamine, milrinone
B)  Verapamil, digitoxin, isosorbide dinitrate
C)  Diltiazem, metoprolol, amrinone
D)  Nicorandil, dobutamine, carvedilol A

Question 2

An adult male complains of oliguria and red colored urine. His CT angiogram shows thrombosis of the renal vein. What should be the immediate goals of treatment for this patient?

Accepted Answer

A)  Decrease the risk of clot formation, prevent progression of current clots, prevent embolization of formed clots
B)  Prevent renal damage, dissolve the clots by thrombolytic medications
C)  Prevent renal failure, use of anticoagulants
D)  Control of hypertension, control of blood cholesterol A

Question 3

Choose the statement that defines intermittent claudication.

Accepted Answer

A)  The condition is defined as muscle cramp during physical activity which resolves once activity is stopped
B)  Intermittent claudication arises from occlusion of peripheral arteries
C)  It consists of muscle cramps during night which is severe enough to awake the patient
D)  It consists of joint pain which resolves when the patient starts walking A

Question 4

Which heart block may be an incidental finding in asymptomatic individuals and is not associated with an increase in mortality and morbidity?

Accepted Answer

A)  Third-degree heart block
B)  Mobitz type I second-degree heart block
C)  First-degree heart block
D)  Mobitz type II second-degree heart block

Question 5

In rate modulated pacing, pacing of atria and ventricles are based on:

Accepted Answer

A)  Intrinsic heart rate
B)  Physiological need of the patient
C)  Pacing only the heart rate increases
D)  Pacing at a constant rate

Question 6

Which of the following drugs are used to treat ventricular fibrillation?

Accepted Answer

A)  Lidocaine, disopyramide, digitalis, adenosine
B)  Epinephrine, vasopressin, amiodarone, and lidocaine
C)  Metoprolol, atenolol, diltiazem, verapamil, hydralazine
D)  Metoprolol, atenolol, diltiazem, moricizine

Question 7

Which of these investigations should be used to assess for restenosis after carotid endarterectomy?

Accepted Answer

A)  Carotid angiogram
B)  Carotid ultrasound
C)  Carotid Doppler
D)  Any of the above can be used

Question 8

Which of the following criteria is most commonly used for diagnosis of Buerger's disease?

Accepted Answer

A)  Age less than 45 years, history of smoking, ischemia in distal part of limb, consistent angiographic finding
B)  Age more than 60 years, diabetic, smoker, ischemic symptoms and normal angiogram
C)  Age less than 45 years, diabetic, non-smoker, symptoms of ischemia
D)  Age more than 60 years, hypertensive, smoker, intermittent claudication

Question 9

Which of the following treatments is considered the standard for care of a patient who has second-degree AV block type II?

Accepted Answer

A)  Atropine
B)  Placement of pacemaker
C)  Isoproterenol
D)  Dopamine

Question 10

Which of the following statements correctly describes the conduction defect that causes third-degree AV block?

Accepted Answer

A)  Delay in conduction of impulses from the SA node to AV node
B)  Conduction defect in the AV node itself
C)  Intermittent failure of conduction of impulses below the AV node
D)  Complete dissociation of impulses between atria and ventricles

Question 11

Alpha-adrenergic antagonists are used in the treatment of which of the following conditions?

Accepted Answer

A)  Cardiac arrhythmia, carcinoid syndrome
B)  Cardiogenic shock, postprandial hypertension
C)  Hypotension, cardiac arrhythmia
D)  Hypertension, pheochromocytoma, extravasation of tissue-toxic drugs

Question 12

A patient has a history of syncope and dizziness associated with nausea. The nurse records an EKG which shows complete heart block (a.k.a. third-degree heart block), a ventricular rate of 40 beats/minute, and intermittent sinus pauses. What is the immediate management indicated in this patient?

Accepted Answer

A)  Atropine
B)  Adrenaline
C)  Isoproterenol
D)  Pacemaker

Question 13

A patient presents with shortness of breath, rapid heart rate, and cyanosis. On auscultation, pulmonary crackles were heard. Which of the following invasive methods may be used to confirm a diagnosis of pulmonary edema?

Accepted Answer

A)  Cardiac catheterization
B)  Pulmonary artery catheterization
C)  Surgical maze procedure
D)  Percutaneous pulmonary intervention

Question 14

Which of the following procedures are correctly matched with the defect for which it is used?

Accepted Answer

A)  Bentall procedure - aortic valve repair
B)  Arterial switch operation - Tetralogy of Fallot
C)  Mustard procedure - aortic valve repair
D)  Senning procedure - mitral valve repair

Question 15

Atrial overdrive pacing is a technique used to treat the following disorder?

Accepted Answer

A)  Premature atrial contractions
B)  Atrial flutter
C)  Paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia
D)  Atrial asystole

Question 16

Which of the following set of conditions is not associated with vasculitis?

Accepted Answer

A)  Behçet's syndrome, Buerger's syndrome, Churg-Strauss syndrome
B)  Tuberculosis, amyloidosis, idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
C)  Henoch-Schönlein purpura, Kawasaki disease, microscopic polyangiitis
D)  Polymyalgia rheumatica, Sjögren's syndrome, Takayasu's arteritis

Question 17

A patient who has swelling, pain, and warmth in his left leg is suspected to have deep vein thrombosis. Which of the following diagnostic modalities are helpful in establishing the presence of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

Accepted Answer

A)  Pulse oximetry, CT angiogram, thallium scan
B)  Ventilation perfusion scan, PET scan
C)  Venography, arteriography, radionuclide study
D)  Nuclear medicine imaging, magnetic resonance imaging, impedance plethysmography of leg, D-dimer blood test

Question 18

An obese adult female presents to the outpatient clinic. The attending nurse records her blood pressure as 136/ 86 mm Hg. According to The 2003 National Heart, Lung, and Blood Institute (NHLBI) guidelines, this patient will fall into which of the following categories?

Accepted Answer

A)  Normal blood pressure
B)  Prehypertension
C)  Hypertension stage 1
D)  Hypertension stage 2

Question 19

When an ischemic event happens, when does myocardial cell death begin?

Accepted Answer

A)  Immediately
B)  After 20 minutes of ischemia
C)  After 60 minutes of ischemia
D)  3-4 hours after ischemia

Question 20

Which of these drugs is liable to cause orthostatic hypotension?

Accepted Answer

A)  Angiotensin receptor blocker, anxiolytics, alpha blockers
B)  Potassium channel openers, nitrates, antihistamines
C)  Angiotensin receptor blockers, antipsychotics, beta agonists
D)  Diuretics, beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, antidepressants

Exam 2: Problems