Exam 3: The Classical World of David Ricardo and Comparative Advantage

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Which one of the following is NOT an assumption contained in the Classical/Ricardo trade model?

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Given the following Ricardo-type table showing the amount of labor input required to produce one unit of output of each of the two goods in each of the two countries: United Kingdom 6 days 5 days United States 4 days 3 days

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Suppose that, with constant opportunity costs, Spain can produce 2,000 units of clothing if it devotes all of its resources to clothing production and 8,000 units of wheat if it devotes all of its resources to wheat production. If Spain is opened to trade at a world price ratio of 1 wheat:0.4 clothing (or 1 clothing:2.5 wheat), Spain will export __________; if the world price ratio were 1 wheat:4 clothing (or 1 clothing:2.5 wheat), Spain would __________.

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Did the concept of comparative advantage strengthen or worsen the case against Mercantilist trade doctrine? Why?

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Why did Ricardo think that international trade was based on comparative advantage while internal (domestic) trade was based on absolute advantage?

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Given the following Ricardo-type table showing the amount of labor input needed to get one unit of output in each industry in each country: Malaysia 3 days 2 days India 10 days 8 days

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It is often said that international trade involves both absolute and comparative advantage. Can this be so? Why or why not?

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In the following Classical-type table showing the output per 10-days of labor input in each of the two commodities in each of the two countries, France 100 units 40 units Germany 150 units 50 units

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