Exam 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
Exam 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, Physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics48 Questions
Exam 2: Host-Parasite Interaction44 Questions
Exam 3: The Laboratory Role in Infection Control29 Questions
Exam 4: Control of Microorganisms60 Questions
Exam 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory39 Questions
Exam 6: Specimen Collection and Processing57 Questions
Exam 7: Microscopic Examination of Materials From Infected Sites34 Questions
Exam 8: Use of Colony Morphology for the Presumptive Identification of Microorganisms37 Questions
Exam 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria52 Questions
Exam 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases56 Questions
Exam 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics50 Questions
Exam 12: Antimicrobial Agent Mechanisms of Action and Resistance44 Questions
Exam 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing83 Questions
Exam 14: Staphylococci34 Questions
Exam 15: Streptococcus, Enterococcus, and Other Catalase-Negative, Gram-Positive Cocci37 Questions
Exam 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli45 Questions
Exam 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis31 Questions
Exam 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli29 Questions
Exam 19: Enterobacteriaceae30 Questions
Exam 20: Vibrio, Aeromonas, Plesiomonas, and Campylobacter Species27 Questions
Exam 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli28 Questions
Exam 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance34 Questions
Exam 23: The Spirochetes26 Questions
Exam 24: Chlamydia, Rickettsia and Similar Organisms24 Questions
Exam 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma20 Questions
Exam 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Nontuberculous Mycobacteria34 Questions
Exam 27: Medically Significant Fungi26 Questions
Exam 28: Diagnostic Parasitology20 Questions
Exam 29: Clinical Virology40 Questions
Exam 30: Agents of Bioterror and Forensic Microbiology33 Questions
Exam 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease27 Questions
Exam 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections33 Questions
Exam 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections30 Questions
Exam 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning33 Questions
Exam 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System26 Questions
Exam 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis33 Questions
Exam 37: Urinary Tract Infections31 Questions
Exam 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases25 Questions
Exam 39: Infections in Special Populations20 Questions
Exam 40: Zoonotic Diseases22 Questions
Exam 41: Ocular Infections25 Questions
Select questions type
What test is useful in the initial differentiation of Proteus, Morganella, and Providencia species from the rest of the Enterobacteriaceae?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(34)
The chemical reaction for the Ortho-nitrophenyl-b-D-galactopyranoside (ONPG) test is:
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(31)
Rapid identification of clinical isolates often involves commercially packaged identification kits and fully automated instruments.What do these kits use to assess the preformed bacterial enzymes?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(39)
To inoculate triple sugar iron (TSI) agar or Kligler's iron agar (KIA), the laboratory scientist should pick a well-isolated colony with an inoculating needle and:
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(33)
Amino acids can be metabolized by these substances that remove an amine group.What is this substance?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(40)
Which system provides rapid identification of gram-negative bacteria through the use of cards?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(28)
Which test determines if an organism is a delayed lactose-fermenter?
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(44)
The lysine iron agar (LIA) slant is also useful in differentiating:
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(44)
In the Voges-Proskauer test, you are testing for the metabolic by-products of which pathway?
(Multiple Choice)
4.8/5
(44)
If a bacterium utilizes lactose or sucrose and produces H₂S, what will the triple sugar iron (TSI) reaction look like?
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(33)
Oxidative/fermentative (O/F) basal medium is a medium that will test the oxidative and fermentative capabilities of a microbe.The pH indicator is:
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(39)
Why does the Moeller decarboxylase base medium contain glucose if it is testing the decarboxylation of amino acids?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(45)
What reagent is used to demonstrate a positive phenylalanine deaminase test?
(Multiple Choice)
4.9/5
(39)
The principle of the citrate test includes all the following except:
(Multiple Choice)
5.0/5
(39)
The medium used in the decarboxylase test is called _____ decarboxylase base medium.
(Multiple Choice)
4.7/5
(39)
Showing 21 - 40 of 52
Filters
- Essay(0)
- Multiple Choice(0)
- Short Answer(0)
- True False(0)
- Matching(0)