Exam 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria
Exam 1: Bacterial Cell Structure, physiology, Metabolism, and Genetics48 Questions
Exam 2: Host-Parasite Interaction45 Questions
Exam 3: Laboratory Role in Infection Control29 Questions
Exam 4: Control of Microorganisms69 Questions
Exam 5: Performance Improvement in the Microbiology Laboratory39 Questions
Exam 6: Specimen Collection and Processing57 Questions
Exam 7: Microscopic Examination of Infected Materials34 Questions
Exam 8: Use of Colonial Morphology for the Presumptive Identification of Microorganisms37 Questions
Exam 9: Biochemical Identification of Gram-Negative Bacteria55 Questions
Exam 10: Immunodiagnosis of Infectious Diseases56 Questions
Exam 11: Applications of Molecular Diagnostics50 Questions
Exam 12: Antibiotic Mechanisms of Action and Resistance44 Questions
Exam 13: Antimicrobial Susceptibility Testing85 Questions
Exam 14: Staphylococci34 Questions
Exam 15: Streptococcus, enterococcus, and Other Catalase-Negative Gram-Positive Cocci37 Questions
Exam 16: Aerobic Gram-Positive Bacilli45 Questions
Exam 17: Neisseria Species and Moraxella Catarrhalis31 Questions
Exam 18: Haemophilus and Other Fastidious Gram-Negative Bacilli29 Questions
Exam 19: Enterobacteriaceae30 Questions
Exam 20: Vibrio,aeromonas,plesiomonas and Campylobacter Species27 Questions
Exam 21: Nonfermenting and Miscellaneous Gram-Negative Bacilli28 Questions
Exam 22: Anaerobes of Clinical Importance34 Questions
Exam 23: Spirochetes25 Questions
Exam 24: Chlamydia and Rickettsia21 Questions
Exam 25: Mycoplasma and Ureaplasma20 Questions
Exam 26: Mycobacterium Tuberculosis and Other Nontuberculosis Mycobacteria33 Questions
Exam 27: Medically Significant Fungi26 Questions
Exam 28: Diagnostic Parasitology19 Questions
Exam 29: Clinical Virology40 Questions
Exam 30: Agents of Bioterror33 Questions
Exam 31: Biofilms: Architects of Disease27 Questions
Exam 32: Upper and Lower Respiratory Tract Infections33 Questions
Exam 33: Skin and Soft Tissue Infections31 Questions
Exam 34: Gastrointestinal Infections and Food Poisoning33 Questions
Exam 35: Infections of the Central Nervous System26 Questions
Exam 36: Bacteremia and Sepsis30 Questions
Exam 37: Urinary Tract Infections31 Questions
Exam 38: Genital Infections and Sexually Transmitted Diseases21 Questions
Exam 39: Infections in Special Populations16 Questions
Exam 40: Zoonotic Diseases20 Questions
Exam 41: Ocular Infections32 Questions
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This test is useful in the initial differentiation of Proteus,Morganella,and Providencia species from the rest of the Enterobacteriaceae.
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Name the two reagents that are needed to visualize nitrite in the nitrate reduction test.
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Biochemical tests are based on the _____ of microorganisms.
(Multiple Choice)
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When performing the oxidative/fermentative (O/F)test,one tube is covered with mineral oil and one tube is left uncovered.Why is one tube covered with mineral oil?
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Some bacteria are asaccharolytic.This means that these bacteria:
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This system provides rapid identification of gram-negative bacteria through the use of cards.
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If a bacterium utilizes lactose or sucrose and produces H₂S,what will the triple sugar iron (TSI)reaction look like?
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The biochemical pathway that the methyl red test confirms is:
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What advantage do the methods based on enzyme substrates have over conventional methods?
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Amino acids can be metabolized by these substances that remove an amine group.What is this substance?
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This test determines if an organism is a delayed lactose-fermenter.
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What two reagents can be used to visualize indole in the broth?
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This identification system for Enterobacteriaceae has a series of 20 cupules attached to a plastic strip.Inside the cupules are lyophilized pH-based substrates.What is the name of this system?
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Why does the Möeller decarboxylase base medium contain glucose if it is testing the decarboxylation of amino acids?
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