Question 1

In what test might rouleaux cause an interference?

Accepted Answer

A)   DAT
B)   Forward ABO grouping
C)   Reverse ABO grouping
D)   Rh control C

Question 2

A laboratory employee who previously tested negative in a donor antibody screen is now testing positive after having had an intravenous immunoglobulin treatment for needle-stick exposure. Which type of antibody has this person formed?

Accepted Answer

A)   active
B)   immune
C)   naturally occurring
D)   passive D

Question 3

When should multiple antibodies be suspected in a positive antibody screen?

Accepted Answer

A)   The autocontrol was positive.
B)   Cells react at different phases and strengths.
C)   Only the AHG phase is reactive.
D)   None of the above B

Question 4

How can neutralization aid in the identification of multiple antibodies?

Accepted Answer

A)   Once antibody has been neutralized serum can be further tested in panel studies.
B)   Neutralization inhibits all warm autoantibodies.
C)   Neutralized serum can be used to phenotype patient cells.
D)   All of the above

Question 5

In which scenario can an antibody be ruled out?

Accepted Answer

A)   Patient serum does not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen.
B)   Patient serum does react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antigen.
C)   Patient cells do not react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody
D)   Patient cells do react with a cell known to carry the corresponding antibody.

Question 6

A patient with a warm autoantibody has a positive DAT. The antibody screen was negative, but the eluate reacted uniformly with all normal cells and patient cells. Why was the antibody screen negative?

Accepted Answer

A)   Reagent red blood cells were saturated with warm autoantibody from patient serum.
B)   No alloantibodies were present.
C)   The warm autoantibody has bound to patient RBCs in circulation.
D)   Polyspecific AHG was used instead of monospecific IgG.

Question 7

When might you suspect multiple antibodies in a patient's serum?

Accepted Answer

A)   Pattern of reactivity not fitting a single antibody
B)   Variation in phase of reactivity
C)   Variation in antibody reactivity strength
D)   All of the above

Question 8

When are antibody titration studies warranted?

Accepted Answer

A)   During a gastrointestinal bleed
B)   During pregnancy
C)   After bone marrow transplantation
D)   During chemotherapy

Question 9

Why is an enzyme treatment used in antibody identification?

Accepted Answer

A)   Enzymes aid in the dissociation of antibody from antigen in a positive DAT.
B)   Enzymes aid in the separation and identification of multiple antibodies.
C)   Enzymes aid in the absorption of autoantibody from patient serum.
D)   Enzymes aid in the separation and identification of multiple antibodies and the absorption of autoantibody from patient serum.

Question 10

Why are antibodies to high-frequency antigens, such as cellano (k), rarely seen in patient samples?

Accepted Answer

A)   Most persons are not antigenically stimulated to produce the antibody, because their red blood cells are negative for the antigen.
B)   Most persons are not antigenically stimulated to produce the antibody, because their red blood cells are positive for the antigen.
C)   Anti-k has low avidity.
D)   Most reagent cells are heterozygous for cellano.

Question 11

Tests with which AHG reagents can determine if IgG, complement, or both are coating red blood cells?

Accepted Answer

A)   Monospecific
B)   Polyspecific
C)   Standardized
D)   Irradiated

Question 12

Why is it important to match the lot number on the panel sheet with the lot number on the panel cells?

Accepted Answer

A)   The ABO group will change from lot to lot.
B)   Pattern of reactions will change from lot to lot.
C)   It is a requirement of the FDA.
D)   All of the above

Question 13

What is an elution?

Accepted Answer

A)   A technique used to dissociate IgM antibodies from sensitized RBCs
B)   A technique used to dissociate IgG antibodies from sensitized RBCs
C)   A technique used to reduce the zeta potential enhancing antigen binding
D)   None of the above

Question 14

A person has developed an antibody to the LISS reagent. What test will not be affected by this circumstance?

Accepted Answer

A)   Major ACT crossmatch
B)   IAT
C)   DAT
D)   Antibody screen

Question 15

What antibody is associated with a mixed-field reaction?

Accepted Answer

A)   Lea
B)   K
C)   Sda
D)   E

Question 16

Antibodies formed as the result of RBC stimulation in the patient are known as:

Accepted Answer

A)   active.
B)   immune.
C)   naturally occurring.
D)   passive.

Question 17

What can be concluded in a patient who has anti-K identified in his serum but phenotypes positive for K antigen?

Accepted Answer

A)   Kell antiserum was omitted.
B)   Patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood.
C)   Anti-K was misidentified
D)   Patient was recently transfused with K-positive blood and Anti-K was misidentified

Question 18

What is an antigen profile sheet?

Accepted Answer

A)   An insert listing the antibodies present in each vial of screening cells
B)   An insert listing the antigenic makeup of each vial of screening cells
C)   A statistical comparison of 200 blood banks' results of antigenic reactions with various antisera
D)   An insert listing the antigenic makeup of check cells

Question 19

In what circumstance would an alloadsorption be performed?

Accepted Answer

A)   Warm autoantibody in serum
B)   HDN
C)   Multiple antibodies in serum
D)   Hemolytic transfusion reaction

Question 20

What makes up an autologous control?

Accepted Answer

A)   Patient serum and patient cells
B)   Patient serum and screening cells
C)   Patient cells and Rh control
D)   None of the above

Exam 10: Detection and Identification of Antibodies