Exam 15: No Arbitrage and the Pricing of Interest Rate Securities

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Why is it that in a deterministic interest rate world we have that: Why is it that in a deterministic interest rate world we have that:

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Because a deterministic interest rate would not bear any risk on account of varying interest rates, this means that under no arbitrage it should give the same return as a the risk-free rate.

What are the three steps for derivative pricing and hedging?

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The three steps are the following: i. Select an interest rate model (e.g. Vasicek). ii. Estimate the parameters of the model, using available data, such as zero coupon bonds. iii. Price the derivative security using the model. iv. Hedge the option exposure through a position in the underlying se- curity.

How can we obtain ¯r and ? in order to calibrate the Vasicek model?

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What is a Partial Differential Equation (PDE)?

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What relation should hold across all securities, given the no arbitrage condition?

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What's the intuition behind the following relationship: What's the intuition behind the following relationship:

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Does the Vasicek model match the term structure?

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How can we obtain ? in order to calibrate the Vasicek model?

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IntheVasicekmodeldewehavelevel,slopeandcurvatureintheterm structure?

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What is a solution to a PDE?

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How strong is the correlation among rates with different maturities in the term structure obtained from the CIR model?

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For the Vasicek model can we say that always m∗(r, t)=m(r, t)? Explain.

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What do we need to build in order to be able to price any security through no arbitrage?

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What problem does the Cox-Ingersol-Ross (CIR) model solve when com- pared to the Vasicek and Ho-Lee models?

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For a deterministic interest rate model, what would be the rate of return on securities? Explain.

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How strong is the correlation among rates in the term structure obtained from the Vasicek model? Is this realistic?

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Does the following equality hold in the real world? Does the following equality hold in the real world?   Why or why not? Why or why not?

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