Exam 1: Basic Laboratory Principles and Techniques
Exam 1: Basic Laboratory Principles and Techniques20 Questions
Exam 2: Spectral Techniques20 Questions
Exam 3: Chromatography and Mass Spectrometry: Theory, Practice, and Instrumentation20 Questions
Exam 4: Chromatographic Techniques20 Questions
Exam 5: Laboratory Analysis of Hemoglobin Variants20 Questions
Exam 6: Electrophoresis20 Questions
Exam 7: Immunological Reactions20 Questions
Exam 8: Immunochemical Techniques20 Questions
Exam 9: Principles for Competitive-Binding Assays20 Questions
Exam 10: Laboratory Approaches to Serology Testing20 Questions
Exam 11: Measurement of Colligative Properties17 Questions
Exam 12: Electrochemistry: Principles and Measurement17 Questions
Exam 13: Molecular Diagnostics17 Questions
Exam 14: Therapeutic Drug Monitoring17 Questions
Exam 15: Clinical Enzymology17 Questions
Exam 16: Protein Isoforms: Isoenzymes and Isoforms17 Questions
Exam 17: Interferences in Chemical Analysis17 Questions
Exam 18: Sources and Control of Preanalytical Variation17 Questions
Exam 19: Laboratory Management17 Questions
Exam 20: Laboratory Automation17 Questions
Exam 21: Point-Of-Care Near-Patient Testing17 Questions
Exam 22: Laboratory Information Systems17 Questions
Exam 23: Laboratory Statistics17 Questions
Exam 24: Reference Intervals and Clinical Decision Limits16 Questions
Exam 25: Quality Control for the Clinical Chemistry Laboratory16 Questions
Exam 26: Evaluation of Methods17 Questions
Exam 27: Classification and Description of Proteins, Lipids, and Carbohydrates16 Questions
Exam 28: Physiology and Pathophysiology of Body Water and Electrolytes17 Questions
Exam 29: Acid-Base Control and Acid-Base Disorders16 Questions
Exam 30: Renal Function17 Questions
Exam 31: Liver Function17 Questions
Exam 32: Diagnosis of Viral Hepatitis17 Questions
Exam 33: Bone Disease17 Questions
Exam 34: The Pancreas: Function and Chemical Pathology17 Questions
Exam 35: Gastrointestinal Function17 Questions
Exam 36: Cardiac and Muscle Disease17 Questions
Exam 37: Coronary Artery Disease: Lipid Metabolism17 Questions
Exam 38: Diabetes Mellitus17 Questions
Exam 39: Iron and Porphyrin Metabolism18 Questions
Exam 40: Hemoglobin18 Questions
Exam 41: Human Nutrition18 Questions
Exam 42: Trace Metals18 Questions
Exam 43: Vitamins18 Questions
Exam 44: Pregnancy and Fetal Development18 Questions
Exam 45: The Newborn18 Questions
Exam 46: Extravascular Biological Fluids18 Questions
Exam 47: Nervous System18 Questions
Exam 48: General Endocrinology18 Questions
Exam 49: Thyroid18 Questions
Exam 50: The Gonads18 Questions
Exam 51: Adrenal Hormones and Hypertension18 Questions
Exam 52: Diseases of Genetic Origin18 Questions
Exam 53: Neoplasia18 Questions
Exam 54: Laboratory Evaluation of the Transplant Recipient18 Questions
Exam 55: Toxicology18 Questions
Exam 56: Addiction and Substance Abuse18 Questions
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How many mL of a 17.6 % solution of compound X (MW 142) would be required to prepare 450 mL of a 0.75 M solution?
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(Multiple Choice)
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D
What dilution is necessary to make an 18 mg/L solution from a 30 mg/L solution?
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(Multiple Choice)
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B
How many mL of a 10 mg/L solution must be diluted to 100 mL to produce 100 mL of a 0.1 mg/dL solution?
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(Multiple Choice)
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Correct Answer:
C
Sodium azide is used in small amounts as a preservative in laboratory reagents.What is the safety concern associated with sodium azide?
(Multiple Choice)
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Suppose you are setting up an assay in which patient samples are run in duplicate.All duplicate patient results match except for one.Which of the following would be a reasonable explanation (or explanations) for the lack of reproducibility for the patient results?
(Multiple Choice)
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A fire associated with actively operating electrical equipment is classified as a ______ fire.The most appropriate type of fire extinguisher for this type of fire would be ______.
(Multiple Choice)
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The force produced by centrifugation is relative centrifugal force (RCF).The units for RCF are expressed as:
(Multiple Choice)
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A material that is used to absorb and remove water from the air is known as a:
(Multiple Choice)
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What is the molarity (M) of a solution prepared by placing 10 g of NaOH (MW = 40) in a flask and diluting to 500 mL?
(Multiple Choice)
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How many mL of 0.819 M acetic acid (MW = 60; pKₐ = 4.76) should be added to 350 mL of 0.368 M sodium acetate (MW = 82) to produce a final pH of 4.89?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following laboratory containers should be selected to store an organic hydrocarbon solvent?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which of the following water purification techniques is most effective in removing dissolved ionized gases?
(Multiple Choice)
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Which laboratory glassware should be selected to ensure accuracy in the preparation of a 100 mL of 0.5 N HCl solution?
(Multiple Choice)
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According to the Hazards Identification System developed by NFPA, the blue diamond indicates:
(Multiple Choice)
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Pipets that must be rinsed in order to deliver the measured volume are known as ______ pipets.Pipets that deliver the measured volume without rinsing are known as ______ pipets.______ pipets are not to be blown out when delivering the full volume of the pipet.
(Multiple Choice)
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A solution of unknown concentration of compound X (MW = 150) has an absorbance of 0.600.It had an absorbance of 0.300 at a concentration of 9 mg/dL.What is the molarity of the solution?
(Multiple Choice)
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